What is Property?

Posted by $ MikeMarotta 7 years, 2 months ago to Politics
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In the "Postmodernism" discussion, engaged with AAshinoff, CBJ offered the image of a locked door. There, I replied:

Locks just stop honest people. Definitions of "property" seem to me to be socially contextual. I grant that fences are a universal indicator. But there are societies in which the huts have no doors, and the hut is still not to be transgressed. On the other hand, our retail establishments have very stout doors that open automatically for anyone and everyone. I once read that Eskimos (Aleuts), have a sense of property concerning driftwood. Wood is valuable, there being so little of it. But, if you find a piece of it, arbitrarily "far" up the shore away from the water, it was "obviously" dragged there by someone else and is not your property. That idea -- "not mine" -- is deep within our own culture: not everything left unattended is free for the taking.

I believe that one-liners are insufficient to understand property. The quip from John Locke that property is that "with which you mix your labor" is wholly insufficient, though it does identify at least one way to look at a complex phenomenon.

One challenge to understanding property is to differentiate "first instance" examples from "civilized" cases. In other words, Robinson Crusoe owned his island because it was isolated and uninhabited when he found it. What if, however, another person had landed on the opposite side, each thinking they owned the whole thing? It is easy to imagine many people each working the "whole island" planting here, hunting there, discovering each other... Now what?

For me, the single problem with "mixing your labor" is that breaking into a bank vault takes a lot of work. You might say that the vault is someone else's property. But Robinson Crusoe might have enjoyed 20 years on "his" island before the original owner returned to check on his property...


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  • Posted by DrZarkov99 7 years, 2 months ago
    Native American tribes had a very different idea of property, with little emphasis on land as an item of personal ownership. Eastern tribes viewed land as a communally occupied property, while the plains tribes focused more on hunting rights over certain areas, rather than those lands themselves. This almost abstract view of property made for much misunderstanding in dealing with European settlers, who had very specific ideas of who owned what patch of land as personal property. With as much violence that ensued from these misunderstandings, you have to wonder what happens when we meet our first alien civilization, which may have even more different concepts of property.
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      Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
      Indians didn't have an "abstract view of property". They had no concept of it. They were primitive collectivists. Of course that led to clashes.
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      • Posted by DrZarkov99 7 years, 2 months ago
        You need to read Tecumseh's statements regarding Amerindian property. The Shawnee chief, who drew together the Wyandot, Fox tribe, Winnebago, Odawa, Mingo, Seneca, among other tribes, into his tribal confederacy very definitely viewed land as a collective communal property, and rejected American government claims to that land based on contracts with individual chiefs. General Harrison (later President Harrison), who fought and killed Tecumseh noted that Tecumseh's intellect was the equal of any world statesman. In spite of their military conflict, Harrison was an admirer of the leader of the confederacy, and feared that if he survived, it would mean the end of the westward spread of America. Hardly a "primitive collectivist," Tecumseh had distinct concepts of grazing and mineral rights, as well as a view of military action regarding prisoners and civilians that predated the Geneva Convention.
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        • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
          "Collective communal property" is not property rights. They knew there were 'things' they used within the tribe. That is not a moral concept of property. Tribal control of land was a primitive form of statist, collectivist government, not property rights. Tribes fought against each other for tribal control. They had no concept of property apart from what they used under subservience to the tribe. Until the settlers came they had developed nothing to contrast their tribalist ways with and no way to form the individualist concept of land as property.
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          • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
            Land as property is not necessarily individualist. I agree that there is an individualist way to conceptualize land as property, but mostly, we still have tribalist collectivist ways that are expressed as a Wall Across the Border, as in Israel and Palestine today, the former East Germany, or, it seems, Texas tomorrow.

            More to the point, are in the individualist concepts of machinery, tools, and (most importantly) ideas as property.

            Imagine going back in time and explaining to Cicero that you are going to perform a song so often that a million people will learn to sing it, but you are still going to claim that it is your property.

            And we still have a long way to go...
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        • Posted by Seer 7 years, 2 months ago
          Also, as far as I know, Tecumseh was the only Indian able to unite those warring tribes.

          Although, the Ghost Cult in the later 19th century did, to a certain extent.
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          • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
            Hiawatha was a real person, a politician of the near-Columbian who also apparently invented wampum as a way to ameliorate conflicts between tribes.

            Curious Currency: The Story of Money from the Stone Age to the Internet Age by Robert Leonard, Whitman, 2010

            Odd & Curious Money by Charles Opitz, First Impression, 1986

            An Ethnographic Study of Primitive Money by Charles Opitz, First Impression, 2001
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            • Posted by Seer 7 years, 2 months ago
              I think in all cultures, but I'm not sure about that, money has been seen, not just as a medium of exchange, but as a store of value. I mean to say it is a natural development. Keep in mind there was trading going on in North America, some involving routes to the midwest. I believe there was trade in copper---will need to check on that.

              Montesquieu says in "The Spirit of the Laws" regarding money: "...money becomes necessary; because a metal easily carried from place to place saves the great expenses which people would be obliged to be at if they always proceeded by exchange."
              A simple explanation of this, is , if you need to go to Portugal to trade your sheep for wine, you sell your sheep in England for specie, then sail to Portugal to purchase the wine. Of course you still need to get your wine back to England, or preferably France, safely, so you "purchase" insurance.

              He says quite a bit more about money, but you have to keep in mind the time and place in which he was writing.

              (One of my majors was Finance---the time value of money is especially dear to my heart).
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              • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
                I have not read Montesquieu, but the quotes in your comment just reflect the same misunderstanding of money found in both Karl Marx and Ludwig von Mises. Money did not evolve from barter. Barter is what monetized societies devolve to when money fails.

                You are right that there was trade in copper in America, about 900-1200, give or take. How it started and why it stopped are not clear to us. We know of extensive patterns of trade in the Americas. None of those was analogous to the trading houses of the Middle Ages, or even to Sumeria vis-a-vis the Hittites. The natives were more "primitive" than that, or so the evidence seems to indicate. They exchanged gifts to seal friendships.

                Ritual gift exchange is the origin of trade and commerce. But I look to the tradition of exchange beginning perhaps 20,000 YA between the two great ice ages, but in any case certainly no later than the most recent, about 12,000 YA.

                It is not true that all societies have money indigenously. Many learned it; some still have not. Like writing, money began in one place, from one invention, and spread by cultural assimilation. They both spread rapidly.

                In The Economy of Cities Jane Jacobs says that where we find pastoralists today, we should look for a lost city near the center of their range. (Farming was invented in cities. Cities did not evolve from agricultural communities.) Similarly, where we find ancient writing and ancient commerce, seemingly independent from Sumeria, when we are missing is the trade route and the moment of transfer.

                But all of that is perhaps better addressed in a different topic.
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            • -2
              Posted by Seer 7 years, 2 months ago
              Basically, I was trying to say that the Indians who sold (or bartered, depending on your perspective) Manhattan to the Dutch knew well they getting value for something they didn't, and couldn't, own.
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          • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
            There is a long history of alliances between all kinds of groups, including Indian tribes. Sometimes they banded together and other times they kept squabbling among themselves. Sometimes there are charismatic 'political' leaders and sometimes not. None of it makes any of them great intellects about property rights.
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        • Posted by Seer 7 years, 2 months ago
          I'm sure American Indians had some view of property rights. It just didn't extend to land, or the sky. After all, they were closer to a hunter-gatherer society, even in the Southeast, than a settled agricultural society, and obviously the freedom to traverse the land was essential.

          Also, American Indians had a lingering "raider" mentality. Stealing, from other tribes, was considered a virtue, so they must have had some sense of "property".

          New Amsterdam was traded by the Indians for beads and shiny things, and their thought was that they were getting the better of the Dutch, as no one could sell, or barter, what he didn't own.

          I'm not one to whine too much over the "noble savage" concept.
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          • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
            You do not understand the function of the beads. To the Indians, they gave the land to the Dutch, and the Dutch expressed their gratitude by sealing their friendship by gifting back beads.

            The Dutch thought (as we do) that they "bought" the land. They did not. It was given to them. You can condemn it as "primitive" but we exchange gifts all the time and do not call it buying and selling.
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            • -2
              Posted by Seer 7 years, 2 months ago
              And if land couldn't be owned, then why would the Indians give it to someone else, so they could own it?
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              • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                They often did not understand it that way, thinking that they were being paid for someone else to use it as a kind of 'treaty' without giving up their own control permanently and their own use. They were dealing between groups, not selling for private ownership.
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                • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
                  How is that not a conflict of definitions? I called it a sale, you called it a lease. Think of software. You never buy it: you only license it. Yet, we primitives think we buy it (or many of us do). The software industry tried to argue this out in the 1980s and 90s but left it unresolved. Since then the Millennium Copyright Act made Mickey Mouse the perpetual property of Disney -- and perhaps it should be. Perhaps no work should fall into the so-called tribalist "public domain."
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            • -2
              Posted by Seer 7 years, 2 months ago
              No one can give something away that they do not own, Mike. And even in their own minds, the Indians never felt they "owned" the land, because no one could own the land. So if they gave it away, they stole it from something else.
              I could give away someone else's car, too, but that would be stealing.
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              Posted by Seer 7 years, 2 months ago
              The Indians knew damn well what they were doing. Getting value for something they never owned.
              No one, and I mean no one, can give something away they don't believe they own.
              You are being tongue-in-cheek, aren't you, Mike?
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              • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                It was tribal control or partial control they were surrendering, not private property.
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                • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
                  Most of the world is still that way. What, after all, is "Sweden"? Why not just show up there and take as much as you can?
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                  • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                    Sweden has a mixed economy as does everywhere else now. Swedes do have a concept of property rights, but like everywhere not consistently. Anyone would have a right to replace a mixed-economy government with one that more consistently defends the rights of the individual if he could do it, which no one could for obvious reasons. This is not about "showing up" to "take as much as you can" and that is not what the settlement of America was.

                    The Indians had no concept of property rights and mostly moved around over unsettled land. Their tribalist control was not a justification to prevent any European from settling on and claiming unowned land in the wilderness, and establishing a more civilized government. That is what they mostly did. They didn't begin by going after Indians where they were living to loot what they had. Some Indians did change to that system once they learned, and were then accepted along with their property rights.
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          • Posted by Seer 7 years, 2 months ago
            Read George Catlin: "Illustrations of the Manners, Customs and Condition of the North American Indians", Volumes I and II.
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      • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
        Unfortunately, ewv, the Objectivist Party Line is wrong on this point. The facts of history speak differently than the preconceived notions and ad hominem arguments.

        The Native Americans did, indeed understand property, though not the same as we do today, not in every context, and not the same way across all tribes, or across all times. Lumping them all together is primitive, collectivist thinking.

        More to the point, neither did the Vikings, Romans, or Greeks have our view of property. They, too, were primitive collectivists. Our understanding developed slowly and is still developing. We call land "real estate" or "real property" because the primitive collectivists of the Middle Ages did not understand machines, tools, or ideas as property. Only land was real. And they called it "estate" because title came from the state - "I hereby dub thee Duke of York." And the king could un-dub you from "your" property if you changed religions... Only in the 1990s did the UK make a dent in "treasure trove" laws that denied a farmer the right to any gold or silver coins found on his land because all gold and silver (indeed, ultimately, all land) was the property of the Crown.

        As an counter-example, as an example of one step along the hard road of understanding, in the Middle Ages when only land was real property and only men could own it, in the County of Champaign, in the town of Troyez, where they held Great Fairs (with Capital Letter) and whence we have the "troy" ounce of precious metals, market stalls became heritable property, and could be owned by women. Of course, that was an exception. In most of the primitive collectivist world of Europe and America, women could not own property until the 20th century. (In Egypt of the 16th century CE and in other Muslim lands, women were legally entitled to inheritance by customary law. See Making Big Money in 1600: The Life and Times of Isma'Il Abu Taqiyya, Egyptian Merchant by Nellie Hanna.
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        • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
          None of that refutes the fact that the Indians were primitive tribalists. That doesn't come from a so-called "Objectivist Party Line". It took a long time everywhere for the principles of property rights to evolve.
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          • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
            Regardless of the internal organizations of the tribes, from the outside the tribal lands did not belong to the Europeans. At first, being weaker, the European settlers bargained and "paid" with gift exchanges. Once they had the military advantage, the Europeans just took what they wanted.

            By the time John Locke penned his essays, Native Americans had converted to Christianity and moved into proximity with the Europeans. (I refer to Massachusetts Bay.) King Philip's War put an end to that. The natives who had acculturated were killed along with the rest. It was an injustice.

            Calling them primitive tribalists does not excuse the wrong. Historical injustices exist, whether the Norman Conquest or the Holocaust. I know no way to undo it all. But the fact of injustice remains.

            And, again, I insist on my opening point: how the natives organized their own lives had no bearing on the problem. If it did, there would be many excuses to rain death on other people. Ayn Rand was in favor of a pre-emptive nuclear strike, being herself undeterred by the presence there of "some non-communist blobs." I point out that the modern United Kingdom still maintains the fiction that the Crown is the primary owner of all land. Their error in philosophy does not grant you the right to hire mercenaries to seize a shire for yourself.
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            • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
              The settlers did not "take what they wanted". The land was unowned. It didn't belong to anyone. European settlers had as much right as any native to use and claim the land in a sparsely settled wilderness.

              Natives were not all killed regardless of whether they accepted individualist property rights of civilization. There was some racism and injustice against innocent Indians, while many Indians successfully became part of civilization. All of it was in the context of a war against near stone-age primitives, most of whom would not give up their primitive, tribalist collectivist mentality leading to barbaric attacks on innocent families of settlers who had every right to be there.

              That ongoing war across the continent was a serious problem during the early settlement to well beyond the establishment of the country. It took a very long time to contend with it using the technology of the time, and is not to be dismissed in terms of modern multiculturalist propaganda. Of course there were injustices. There are always are in war. We prefer civilization and do not look for war with excitement as if it were a sports tournament, but do the best we can when it comes.

              Ayn Rand did not advocate "raining death on other people".
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              • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
                Ayn Rand Answers: The Best of her QA* edited by Robert Mayhew, New American Library, first edition; first printing, 2005, pgs 94-95. Ayn Rand said that the only "innocent" people in the USSR are in concentration camps. And she called them "non-communist blobs." Moreover, the USA should not be deterred by the problem innocents in war. But we can take this up in a different topic.
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                • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                  You have misrepresented and misquoted in several ways what she said.

                  Advocating self defense against aggressor nations does not mean advocating as mere "blobs".
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  • Posted by Lucky 7 years, 2 months ago
    What is property? Some of the approaches used in stories are:

    In 'The Girl Who Owned a City' -
    the kid who has worked then was paid with a toy appreciated that toy more than ..

    In Robinson Crusoe,
    was the island owned by the king of Spain who had a document signed by the pope assigning all land between defined latitudes and longitudes?
    Or the guy who was shipwrecked the day before Crusoe landed on the other side?
    Or Man Friday who had visited years before that?

    In Mitchener, Exodus I think,
    Who owns the land-
    the nomadic tribes who live in and roam over it?
    The Ottoman empire?
    Those whose ancestors lived there a millennium ago?
    The settlers who drained swamps, built dams, irrigated the land, and grew fruit and vegetables?

    Maybe the question is wrong, property is not fundamental, it derives from owner.
    So what decides ownership?
    As a fan of one-liners, there is of course-
    'Whatever the court decides'.
    Put aside law and social context and consider ethics alone then try-
    Ownership comes only from sweat.
    (This may be too biblical for some).
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    • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
      See my general reply below (here https://www.galtsgulchonline.com/post... ) The problem is beyond one-liners. "Property" is a highly abstracted concept. It can be traced to the mere animal claim to plucked fruit, but when you go from land to poetry and mathematic theorems, it is obvious that defining property objectively requires paragraphs, if not books.
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      • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
        Animals plucking fruit have nothing to do with property rights or any other ethical principle.
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        • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
          I did not mean that animals pluck fruit. Animals do not have rights. I meant that people pluck fruit, freely growing in an open, and unowned range. The fruit belongs to the person who picked it. But the idea of owning an orchard - and leasing it use - is far abstracted from that.
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  • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago in reply to this comment.
    Property ownership is a right. All rights are moral principles sanctioning and defining freedom of action in a social context.
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    • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
      property rights are not limited to a social context
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      • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
        Re: “property rights are not limited to a social context”. Ayn Rand would disagree. Her definition of rights states explicitly, “A ‘right’ is a moral principle defining and sanctioning a man’s freedom of action in a social context.” (Man’s Rights, in The Virtue of Selfishness.) This applies to all rights, including property rights.
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        • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
          That is an interesting quote, however I do not think it is saying what you think it is saying, as this quote points out:

          "“Rights” are a moral concept—the concept that provides a logical transition from the principles guiding an individual’s actions to the principles guiding his relationship with others—the concept that preserves and protects individual morality in a social context—the link between the moral code of a man and the legal code of a society, between ethics and politics. Individual rights are the means of subordinating society to moral law."

          The Virtue of Selfishness “Man’s Rights,”
          The Virtue of Selfishness, 92


          For Rand morality exists for an individual on a deserted island. So if rights are part of morality then they exist separate from a social context, however in a social context they "are the means of subordinating society to moral law."
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          • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
            Reading your quote above, morality does exist for an individual on a deserted island, but rights do not. If rights are "the link between the moral code of a man and the legal code of a society," then the "legal code of a society" must exist in order for the "link" to exist. This requirement would not be met in the case of a single individual on an otherwise deserted island.
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          • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
            The "interesting statement" was the definition. That rights are part of morality does not mean that they apply or are meaningful out of context. Every part of morality does not apply to every choice or action regardless of its meaning and relevance. Where there is only one person there is no social context in which to apply principles about choices and actions in a social context.
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      • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
        All rights are in a social context. Without other people there is no issue of 'freedom of action'. There isn't anyone to stop you and the question of rights does not arise.
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        • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
          Nope they are not. Rights are based on reality not social perception.
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          • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
            A social context does not mean "social perception". Rights concern interactions between people. People and their actions are part of reality.
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            • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
              I understand. Property rights exists in a Robinson Crusoe setting. It is important that Crusoe have property rights in things or he will die.
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              • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                That is not a matter of rights: With no one else around, the question of rights could not arise. Taking action to live when alone is basic ethics, which contrary to altruism does not begin with and is not restricted to relations among people. The facts that give rise to the need for a concept of rights are the social context related to behavior between different people. That is why rights are defined as a moral principle sanctioning and defining freedom of action in a social context. The concept of rights depends on ethics, not the reverse. The ethics of egoism implies rights. And basic ethics does not depend on 'Robinson Crusoe' situations, which are only extreme examples. In fact we do grow up and live in society, but must choose to think and act independently to live regardless of what others are doing and interactions with them establishing a social context.
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                • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
                  It is not a question of rasserting ights, it is a question of reality If Crusoe does not create value he will die. If he creates values, he has created property rights - whether he has to assert them against other is a different question.
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                  • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                    Rights is a concept that can only arise in the context of interaction with others. It doesn't mean personally creating value, which is more fundamental. They are different concepts. Rights is more abstract and logically dependent on basic ethics. Rights protect your keeping from others the value you create.
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              • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
                Do you mean that as a primary? If Robinson Crusoe came to the island and denied himself everything because he did not regard it all as his property, he would die. He needs to make it his in order to use it.

                But that rests on ewv's premise that intelligence is the source of property. RC must perceive his needs and understand how to fulfill them.

                From that, suppose, he never perceives the guava as fruit he can eat. From your premise, the guava is never his property. He never owns the whole island, but only every bit of it that he actually uses.

                That seems like a reductio fallacy to me...
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                • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                  He does not have to regard it as either all or in part his property to live. He only needs to do what is required for himself in a situation in which he is all alone and his life is threatened.

                  But 'Robinson Crusoe' portrayals are at best relevant as extreme examples to illustrate the necessity of personal productivity, and otherwise emergency ethics of no particular significance to how principles for normal life are established.
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                  • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
                    Thanks for the reply. I agree. My comment and question were directed to db. Sorry about the misdirection. But, again, I appreciate the reply. I am trying to understand his claims.
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  • Posted by $ Stormi 7 years, 2 months ago
    EWV said that air and water are not owned, yet Congress within the last few years claimed to own rain, and thus to be able to tax us on what fell on our property. Government disregards property rights, esp. BLM. What about national parks, are they the citizens jointly, or the government of the moment, and who owns them when they are declared Heritage Sites?I have noticed that more and more, school children are being taught to disregard property rights, and to think homeowners' land should all belong to everyone. The same schools are teaching them that capitalism is bad.
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    • Posted by Jstork 7 years, 2 months ago
      Hear, hear. Just like the equal rights movement. Break my legs to make me equal with others.
      Here is a short clip (under two minutes). http://bit.ly/2kdABpH
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      • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
        In other words, the "equality is fair" movement is collectivist egalitarian nihilism dragging everyone down by brute force to a lowest common denominator in the name of idealism.
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      • Posted by $ Stormi 7 years, 2 months ago
        Good video, right to the point, simple but on the mark. I admit I have issues with the value of sports figures vs say firefighters, as I value the latter more. However, as far as capitalism goes, they do not stimulate the economy, but I am glad they are there.
        When our daughter was in school, a lot came up about "aair" and and "equality" I used to tell her there is no "fair" in nature, that it is a man made concept, which cannot be legislated.
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    • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
      Generally, the air we breathe is not limited and not owned. Water can be owned, depending on the circumstances. Water rights in the west are commonly owned and so are private wells, but not the whole underground reservoir.

      Government control like NPS and BLM is statist control, not joint ownership rights. They specialize in seizing private property rights.
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      • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
        Bottled air is a commodity to divers, aviators, and firefighters, among others. Your enjoyment of "free" air is like the native Americans of the Great Plains enjoying "free" land. ... and then there are the people on the International Space Station...

        It is an oversight of Austrian economics that air, sunshine, and beauty are not subject to the market. Beauty in particular must be produced. So, beauty is something that someone can own as property.
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        • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
          "Generally, the air we breathe is not limited and not owned" because we generally do not go around breathing out of bottles that someone else produced.

          Beauty may or may not be produced. No one produced the view of stars in the sky at night or sunshine or the air in the atmosphere. That is not an oversight of economics. If something becomes in limited supply it can then be a commodity.
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        • Posted by CircuitGuy 7 years, 2 months ago
          "It is an oversight of Austrian economics that air, sunshine, and beauty are not subject to the market."
          The key thing is it's not excludable. If you do something that pollutes or improves the air, you can't exclude people who don't want to pay to improve it. You can with drinking water, though.

          To me excludability is a basic issue in economics.

          Suppose you have a like surrounded by plots of land with different owners. Some of the owners are using fertilizers that promote algae growth, polluting the lake. I don't have a perfect solution, but it seems like the courts or gov't should compare a group of properties by a polluted lake with a similar group of properties by an unpolluted lake, use those numbers to calculate a cost for each unit of fertilizer used, and make the people who use the fertilizer pay damages equal to how much value they're destroying.

          If there were only two property owners, it could be handled by mutual agreement. The owners who doesn't want the fertilizer used could negotiate a price with the other owner for polluting the lake. This becomes problematic, though, when there's a group of owners sharing a lake, and there's one holdout who says that for whatever reason this lake is priceless to him. Maybe his family owned property next to it and swam there for generations.. I'm sympathetic to his position, but I don't think his property rights override all the other owners'. If he wants non-polluted water, he needs take the money paid in damages plus the money from selling his "damaged" property, and purchase land by a lake he owners or on which he owns a binding non-pollute agreement of some sort.
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          • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
            "Excludable" hits on the problems with intellectual property. As Ayn Rand pointed out, you cannot prevent someone from knowing what they know. You cannot copyright (or patent) the ideas in a book, only the form of the presentation.

            I am not sure that that is entirely correct. I do not know how patents on mathematical theorems would work. dbhalling and I have gone around on that, unproductively. (He is an IP attorney.) He has denied several times with me and others that two people can independently invent something. His real world argument is that in our society today, a professional inventor does literature searches before embarking or getting too far down the road with an idea.
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            • Posted by CircuitGuy 7 years, 2 months ago
              We may be talking about two different things. In the case of an invention you can (it's physically possible) to exclude it from people who don't want to pay. If there is an invention that crams more data into a single cable, someone who does not want to license that technology can instead use multiple cables or accept lower data throughput. In the case of something like the benefits of policing, someone who doesn't want the policing cannot be excluded the benefits.
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              • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
                Someone who doesn't want policing can be excluded from many of its benefits, such as not having police respond when his person or property are attacked and not being able to initiate court proceedings.
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                • Posted by CircuitGuy 7 years, 2 months ago
                  " policing can be excluded from many of its benefits,"
                  I agree. I think you agree that some component of policing is excludable and others are not.

                  On a tangential note, I think the non-excludable part is bigger. If someone is bothering you and you call the police, there's a good chance they won't get there in time. The main benefit is after the crime or attempted crime they collect evidence that could be used to help other citizens, including full-service subscribers in an excludable subscription model.
                  I overheard the police confront someone in front of my house. They said, "you say you're out here selling magazines, but you don't have any sales materials and you don't live here. You just got out of jail for burglary. I am not going to arrest you. I'm not your father but I'm telling you in a fatherly way if you break into my house at night I'm gonna blow you away. You're going to break into the wrong place eventually, and I don't want to see that happen." He was benefiting everyone in the neighborhood.
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      • Posted by $ Stormi 7 years, 2 months ago
        Do you remember when Congressional committee was discussing our not owning the rain, but government did? They were saying any which fell and did not go immediately inot the ground, would be taxed? I had pretty much forgotten it unto a few weeks ago when I was having coffee with the head of the Fairboard, and the subject came up. He told me how much they were paying for all they paved areas and roofs on buildings on the grounds, where rain felI.I was shocked at the thousands they were being charged.
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        • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
          There was a Maryland law taxing people when it rained on their property. I didn't know 'ownership' of rain was discussed in Congress. Is that now in Federal regulations?
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          • Posted by $ Stormi 7 years, 2 months ago
            I am not exactly sure if it is federal law, but Pelosi was quite vocal about the ownership part in new conferences a year or so ago. Someone is getting the money the Fairboard is paying, someone authorization came down that was not there before. At present, we are not yet taxed on our 120 ft driveway or our one-story roof, but they were discussing moving it to residenal as well.
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  • Posted by chad 7 years, 2 months ago
    So many interesting ideas of conflicts and the question of how do you resolve them? How long before an abandoned property can be claimed, 6 months, 20 years, never? If I haven't visited my cabin in a short period is it open to occupation by any who passed by, saw it wasn't in current use and thought they could use it?
    The Indians have an interesting 'claim' on the land in that they were an indigenous people compared to the Europeans when they began to appear, but they had invaded the country from Asia, what gives them the right to ownership because no one else is around? The tribes of the Americas were anything but cooperative and could take another tribes property at any time. It is interesting that they all want to band together when there is the opportunity to aggrandize their property any time there is some connection to them and their ancestors to the land; to wit: a local tribe suddenly claimed an area was their sacred ground when someone discovered ancient petroglyphs on the land. Up until then the local tribe knew nothing about the petroglyphs and they have no clue as to what message they might have but once discovered they wanted 'their' land returned to them.
    One thing I am certain of, no government no matter how small or large should ever be allowed to own or control any property (land, intellectual, goods or etc.) under any condition for any purpose. When the entity that has the right to use violence against its citizens has the right to property it is simply one more abuse they will use to its maximum extent; to wit: The BLM, Forest Service, Park Service etc.
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    • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
      Indians had no moral claim on the land. Indigenous tribalism has no more or less claim to control than non-indigenous tribalism. They had no concepts of property property rights to the land, only a primitive form of political control. The brutal inter-tribal warfare wasn't fought over each property rights either; it was only ruthless wars of one tribal gang against another.

      Anyone had a right to settle on the unowned land, most of which wasn't even being used in the very sparsely inhabited wilderness. And anyone had a right to institute a free society with a better government protecting the rights of the individual for civilization.

      Tribes claiming control over "ancient sacred ground" have no more right to it today than centuries before, only a superior force in the form of the National Park Service, etc. helping them to destroy civilization and private property.
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      • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
        Did European settlers have the "right" to enter a peaceful Native American village and force the inhabitants to leave, on the grounds that the land was "unowned"? I think the issue is more complex and context-dependent than it appears.

        I agree that the "ancient sacred ground" argument has no legal or moral justification.
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        • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
          The country was not founded on "entering peaceful villages and forcing the inhabitants to leave". You left out the fact that there were Indian wars.
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          • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
            I was referring to events that occurred during the course of European settlement of the New World. The fact that there were "Indian wars" is not relevant to my question above.
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            • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
              The setters did not just "enter a peaceful Native American village and force the inhabitants to leave". That is not how the continent was settled. The Indian wars most certainly were relevant. The "question" was an "are you still beating your wife" invalid question based on a false premise.
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              • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
                Seriously??

                “Indian removal was a policy of the United States government in the 19th century whereby Native Americans were forcibly removed from their ancestral homelands in the eastern United States to lands west of the Mississippi River, thereafter known as Indian Territory.”
                https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_...

                Also:

                “In 1823, a landmark decision was made by the Supreme Court (Johnson v. M'Intosh) that private citizens could not purchase lands from Native Americans, because Indians could not hold title to their own lands, even if they had occupied them for years. This was because their 'right of occupancy' was subordinate to the United States' 'right of discovery.' This decision would become a staple in federal and state cases related to Indian land title for the next two centuries.” http://www.legendsofamerica.com/na-pu...

                And:

                http://www.history.com/topics/native-...
                http://www.loc.gov/teachers/classroom...
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                • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                  Indian relocation and removal pertained to tribal warfare using large areas as a base for marauding raids, not "peaceful Native American villages" nestled in the countryside. You keep leaving out the Indian wars. They were obviously "relevant ". They were central to the policy of the time, lasting through the late 19th century.

                  Prohibitions on private citizens buying land from Indians pertained to tribes on reservations, in accordance with Federal policy, because they would not live as individuals. Private citizens could not override government reservation policy. It was not about Indians living as private citizens assimilated into the civilized population with private land ownership.

                  None of the standard multicultural political correctness and revisionism is an argument for the White Guilt line denouncing the settlement of the continent and establishing a civilized society.
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                  • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
                    Marauding raids occurred on both sides, and the 1823 Supreme Court prohibition on private citizens buying land from Native Americans did not “pertain to tribes on reservations,” it predated the reservation system and involved land that had been purchased in 1773, before the U.S. was even a nation.

                    “The Indian Removal Act was put in place to give to the southern states the land that Indians had settled on.” https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_... The “civilized society” that benefitted from this policy was primarily a society of (civilized?) slaveholders who regarded Native Americans, like African-Americans, as inferior beings not deserving of rights. The Indian Removal Act of 1830 did not distinguish between peaceful and warlike Native American settlements – it lumped them all into a collective category in order to carry out a statist land grab.
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                    • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                      The Indian wars persisted because the Indians would not stop and leave the settlers alone. There is no moral equivalence between a band of savages murdering isolated families and burning their homes versus an attack on the tribe that perpetrated it. The Indian tribes were a serious problem. Their marauding raids were characteristic, not isolated crimes.

                      This persisted for centuries. It doesn't make any difference when the word "reservation" was first used to designate areas confining tribes which had no concept of individualism or private property rights.

                      Individual Indians did in fact assimilate into an individualist culture and there were few Indian slaves even in the south. The overwhelming Indian problem was the tribalists who had no concept of rights or individualism and acted accordingly. That set the context for the entire Indian war problems and how they were viewed by civilized people defending their rights and frightened by the Indian raids. Individuals settling in the wilderness despite the tribalists were not a "statist land grab".

                      If you want to criticize systematic unjustified treatment of the Indians look at the late 19th century and early 20th century government actions like the "progressive" national parks where Indians were removed and otherwise treated as subhuman tourist attractions long after there was any threat of Indian wars. The whole welfare state reservation system today is destructive.

                      The leftist, multiculturalist sweeping trashing and misrepresentation of the settling and founding of this country as Evil White "racism" and "stealing the land from the Indians" is no better when dressed up in bizarre libertarian rhetoric of "statist land grab" that doesn't show any more conceptual understanding than the rest of the anarchist "idealist" fringe. It's no wonder that they simultaneously steal from and attack Ayn Rand and still pile on trying to resurrect the otherwise rightfully forgotten 1970s Rothbard-Liggio line.
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                      • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
                        I am neither leftist, multiculturalist nor anarchist, I have never invoked the (anti)concept of “white guilt”, and my posts certainly did not steal from or attack Ayn Rand. What I have done is present documented facts regarding actions that the U.S. government undertook to benefit citizens in primarily slaveholding states by uprooting large numbers of Native Americans, peaceful or otherwise, and forcing them to resettle hundreds of miles away. The “Indian wars” were primarily fought between largely collectivist tribes and considerably collectivist governments whose implementation of property rights was race-dependent and included the “right” to own slaves. Both peaceful settlers and peaceful Native Americans were victims of these government and tribal policies over which they had very little influence. As for atrocities, there were plenty on both sides.

                        I agree with you that “the whole welfare state reservation system today is destructive,” but I would point out that this treatment of Native Americans as “subhuman tourist attractions” was facilitated by the then-entrenched and widespread view of them as racially inferior. This is a clear example of a mindset that Ayn Rand considered abhorrent and described as “the lowest, most crudely primitive form of collectivism.”
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                        • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
                          Last year, I read half a dozen books and another dozen journal articles about CAHOKIA. It seems that the Europeans first came to America at what was for them a lucky low point in Native civilization.

                          Nonetheless, after the collapse of Cahokia and Mound culture in general, in what became "Virginia" down to "Georgia" extensive agriculture and large villages were attractive enough that some English settlers abandoned their failing colonies and went native. This, of course, was before the English Revolution of 1688, John Locke's great thesis, the English Bill of Rights, and other roots of the new American civilization.

                          Also, for a graduate class in criminology theory, writing a term paper on traditional forms of punishment and remediation, I happened upon the Cheyenne. It seems that about 1780 give or take they had some sort of internal power struggle that was settled by a wise woman. She happened to be a slave from the Asinoboine tribe, but they recognized her authority on this matter. She set up a system of checks and balances in which local chiefs elected non-hereditary grand chiefs who formed a general council. Being spread out over the Great Plaines, they had four troops of "soldiers" - Dogs, Foxes, Crazy Dogs, and something else I forget - whose job it was to patrol the outer margins and herd the stragglers back to the center. We're talking about "margins" and "centers" many miles in extent: for the annual gathering of the tribes each summer, the ceremonial "center" was a mile across. (Though ethnologists called them "soldiers" they did not actually fight external enemies, because hardly anyone was out there until we showed up.)
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                        • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                          The whole promotion of sweeping accusations of racism and multiculturalism to denounce the founding of this country as based on stealing from the Indians is false and leftist in origin.

                          That entire theme was widely promoted by the New Left and the radical Indian ethnicity movement decades ago where it was picked up by libertarians and anarchists attracted to and pandering to the leftist counter culture. Strained arguments couching in "libertarian" rhetoric and re-interpretations of "documentation" do not make it true.

                          This page is about property rights and their defense, not revisionist ethnic rationalizations on behalf of tribalists and the poetic propaganda of supposedly innocent noble savages and their "ancestral homelands". There was no moral equivalency between the primitive Indian savagery and settlers fighting back, including herding the tribes out of the way up through the late 19th century. Settlers had every right to live in the unowned wilderness and no duty to submit to primitive tribal control.

                          The land base of this country was not "stolen" by "statist land grabs" of "peaceful villages". That sweeping misrepresentation was not the basis of this country, which was founded on the rights of the individual despite the primitive tribes sparsely inhabiting the continent and despite injustices like slavery in the south that were eliminated precisely because of what the country was.
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                          • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
                            Nothing in your post contradicts or even addresses the facts I brought up. I did not “denounce the founding of this country as based on stealing from the Indians”, and I did not present “revisionist ethnic rationalizations on behalf of tribalists and the poetic propaganda of supposedly innocent noble savages and their ‘ancestral homelands’".

                            Re: “The land base of this country was not ‘stolen’ by ‘statist land grabs’ of ‘peaceful villages’.” Most of it wasn’t, but some of it was, as I discussed above.

                            Re: “There was no moral equivalency between the primitive Indian savagery and settlers fighting back, including herding the tribes out of the way up through the late 19th century.” The moral status of interactions among Native Americans and European colonizers is context-dependent. It pertains to individual acts that took place at varying times and places and under varying circumstances. There is no single blanket “moral status” that can cover all of these interactions. Sometimes settlers were in the right, sometimes Native Americans were, and sometimes neither side was. The claim that it was all about “primitive Indian savagery and settlers fighting back” is a vast oversimplification.

                            Re: “Settlers had every right to live in the unowned wilderness and no duty to submit to primitive tribal control.” It logically follows, then, that “Native Americans had every right to live in the unowned wilderness and no duty to submit to colonial, state or federal government control.” Both statements are correct.
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                          • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
                            Based on the best historical evidence of the time, Karl Marx - who investigated facts as catalogued in the British Museum library - claimed that gold is the highest form of commodity money. Ludwig von Mises said the same thing, though he derived that logically from his Kantian premises without needing to be bothered by mere facts of history. So, were I to cite Karl Marx as an authority on the place of gold as money in the 19th century, what would you say to that? My point is that the facts here are independent of the intellectual errors of libertarians or progressives.

                            The problem of the United States versus the Native Americans reflects the many contradictions in the theory of property and property rights that we inherited. While the Europeans depended on finely grained understandings among themselves - "virtual" wealth in credit, for instance - they did not extend the same theories to the Natives whose lands they wanted.

                            I point out that if you look at a picture of "Earth at Night" you will see that mostly, we are concentrated in a few places. Aliens from outer space might recognize that fact and still insist on building their own spaceports in the greatly "unoccupied" expanses of Nebraska ...
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      • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
        But you could say the same thing about the Highland Scots, the Wallaces, Nixons, and Johnsons, raiding each other for cattle, carrying off women (who were regarded as property). But the Highlanders were only doing what the Greeks had done before. Achilles and the other Achaean princes were not capable of understanding property rights. Even if they could have grasped the concept as it relates to land, try telling them that the songs about them belong to Homer. Of course, the classical Greeks were primitive collectivist savages. Evidence of that is the fact that if you left your city, you left its protection and could be captured and sold into slavery.
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        • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
          "But" why? We're talking about Indians, not claiming that the rest of the globe has always been a bastion of property rights.
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          • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
            Because what you are saying is that if you have a better understanding of property rights than someone else then you can take their property.

            I pointed out that "air rights" are a new understanding that did not exist before the industrial age brought the skyscraper and aviation.

            You deny the "wedge into outer space" but it is known that a commercial enterprise on the
            ground sold the space above it to a skyscraper that was built over it.

            In your view, they could just have built the structure over the store and screwed the owner for his primitive lack of knowledge.

            NYC 2012 here: http://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/artic...

            Air Rights in Wikipedia here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air_rig...
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            • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
              No one said "if you have a better understanding of property rights than someone else then you can take their property".

              There is no right "as a land-owner... to a wedge from the center of the Earth extending infinitely into space". Skyscrapers are not built in an infinite outer space.
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  • Posted by LibertyBelle 7 years, 2 months ago
    I think that uninhabited land becomes property if
    someone does something to make it his property; that is, to farm it, cultivate it, or at least to put some sign or barrier on it to differentiate it from other land, such as a fence, or at least some sort of marker. I read that the
    American Indians used to never put up fences to differentiate, so as to indicate "This is my land,
    not my neighbor's." (There may have been differ-
    ences in tribes on that custom; I don't know).
    But, at a minimum, there should be at least
    some physical sign of ownership or possession.
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    • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
      My wife's family came to Michigan when it was a frontier. They got a section, 640 acres, a square one mile on a side. You cannot see that far for the woods and little hills. So, could I farm my own acre of their 640 that they have not cultivated?

      (There is a stolen concept here. The 640 acres was already deeded to the owner under the laws of the Territory. So, the concept of title created the right to property.)
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      • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
        They were required under law to live and work on the land within some criteria for a specific length of time before they got the full title. The title didn't create the right (or the "property"), it registered their particular claim to property as completed. The legal right was created when Congress passed the law and they subsequently staked their initial claim on specific unowned land they intended to use and keep as their right.
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  • Posted by unitedlc 7 years, 2 months ago
    I think defining property changed completely once everything was discovered, charted, and claimed (on our planet anyway). Laws (and wars) have defined it for all practical purposes, but ethical definitions often differ greatly from law.

    Once original ownership has been established for the first time through discovery or labor, then I think it is pretty simple. The property belongs to that individual until he decides and agrees to not own it any more by any means he sees fit. Whether he decides to sell, gift, abandon, etc. makes no difference. It is his until it isn't by his choice. I am simply talking about the ethics of how ownership "ought" to be.
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  • Posted by mgarbizo1 7 years, 2 months ago
    And how about the idea of intellectual property: I thought of "it" first and got approval from WIPO, so your invention is now under my control since I have proof of its conceptual existence being from me and before you actualized it into the real world.
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    • Posted by unitedlc 7 years, 2 months ago
      There are definitely some very slippery slopes involved with intellectual property rights. My philosophy has been that if you built it first, then you are the inventor. We would never have anything accomplished if everyone is too scared of actually building something because they worry about lawsuits in case someone else already "thought" of it.

      Action is greater than thought.
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      • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
        US Patent Law is problematic on many grounds. For one thing, we now follow the rest of the world in which "first to file" replaces "first to invent."

        Also, you do not need to actually build anything to get it patented. You did back in 1793. That changed in the 19th century. A few years ago, Randall L. Mills was granted a patent for "hydrino energy." Complaints from other scientists caused the USPTO to withdraw its grant.
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      • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
        How about if everyone is too scared of actually building something because they worry about lawsuits in case someone else already built it (or claims they did, or claims they purchased a patent that allegedly is being infringed)?
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  • Posted by $ blarman 7 years, 2 months ago
    I would like to think that there are multiple levels of property claims. The first level is property which is mine regardless of circumstance to which I cite only two things: my body and the products of my mind. The second level of property is what is being used here as the products of one's labor: clothing, shelter, food, etc. and which I make exclusive claim to. Those are only mine insofar as I do not violate the laws of society and have them taken from me. Then there is a third level which are shared resources: air, water, roads, airspace, etc. to which I have a claim, but not an exclusive claim. I think that approaching things in this manner gives a clearer picture of true ownership.
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    • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
      Your body and mind are not economic property -- such 'self ownership' is at the root of ethics itself and is required before validating property and other rights in a social context. Private property is the right to use and disposal. Air and water are unowned, not a kind of property right. Muddling private property with "entitlements", the unowned, and your inherent self is not clearer.
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      • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
        Air and water are now unowned by forced collectivization. In a world of complete laissez faire and Objectivist law, air and water, sunshine and wind, sunsets and the sound of the surf, all could be owned.

        In theory right now in common real estate law in the USA (or at least the Eastern part of it), as a land-owner you have a wedge from the center of the Earth extending infinitely into space. Of course, the practical reality is different, especially regarding air rights. However, in New York City, for example, air rights are real. You can have your property on the ground and sell the space above it.

        In a aerial society of airships, dirigibles, blimps, and balloons, very clear and complex concepts of "air rights" would make us look like Native Americans of the skies.

        Just for example, considering the airways, the federal government almost followed what Ayn Rand identified as the proper way for the govenrment to privatize frontier lands. In the 1920s through 1950s, there were radio beacon airways that connected cities. Better navigation devices made those radio beacon airways obsolete. But they could have been privatized.

        There is no reason why three-dimensional airspaces cannot be demarcated, owned, bought, sold, leased, rented, ...

        The same is true of spaces under the surface of the oceans.
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        • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
          There is no need for private property ownership of things that are not limited, like breathing air.

          Land owners do not have a right to infinite space above them. You can't block air travel or satellites in space and a lot more.
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          • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
            The laws that I cited were the historical understanding of landed property rights. Of course, the invention of aviation changed that -- by force of custom, not by any rational-realist arguments. It is still a problem today, as when people fly their toy drones over each other's homes. The courts have ruled that you do not have a right to privacy from the air. Thus, the police and see your marijuana plants and arrest you without needed a warrant. Of course, it also means that I can stand on my roof and watch you sunbathing naked -- whereas I do not have the same right to look into your windows and see you in your home: that's being a peeping Tom, which is against the law.
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            • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
              You wrote "In theory right now in common real estate law in the USA (or at least the Eastern part of it), as a land-owner you have a wedge from the center of the Earth extending infinitely into space", not "historical understanding" now "changed". It isn't true never was. Rights to "infinite wedges" into space have no meaning and never did.
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        • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
          In a world of complete laissez faire and Objectivist law, how could a sunset be owned, used and disposed of? What would be the mechanism of enforcement to exclude others from the benefits of ownership?
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          • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
            You buy a home for the view. I put up a taller home to the west. This loss of value has been argued in the courts. In some cities, it is against the building codes to deprive a previous landholder from the value of the view. Here in Austin, it was against the law to put up any structure taller than the Capitol dome. The two oldest "skyscrapers" are a mere 11 stories.

            Can I build a space station that blocks the Sun? It has been considered.
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            • Posted by $ CBJ 7 years, 2 months ago
              You are describing current law, not the law "in a world of complete laissez faire and Objectivist law." I've never seen any Objectivist assertion of a "view" as a property right. Unless an explicit prior agreement exists, I regard the assertion of such a "right" as interference in a neighbor's property right, as constructing a tall building on his property does not constitute an initiation of force against anyone else.
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        • Posted by Seer 7 years, 2 months ago
          That's good thinking. I may not agree with all of it, but that's because I'm not wholly educated in the "law" surrounding it.
          However, I have an interest in laws regarding "freedom of the seas". These are still being hashed out, and certainly change from era to era. For instance, as regards the Bosphorus and Dardanelles, I believe Turkey has been given international sanction to "govern" them, for certain types of ships.

          See "The Montreux Convention Regarding the Regime of the Straits"---
          http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Montreux...
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      • Posted by $ blarman 7 years, 2 months ago
        The question was "what is property". To me that is a broad statement which allows for any kind of interpretation. You can feel free to describe things in whatever terms make sense to you.

        To me, in order for something to be considered property it must be associated with an ownership claim - whether by me or by someone else. And my claim can exist regardless of any social context. If I existed to the exclusion of everyone else, I would still claim my body and my mind my own first be recognition of the basic idea of me. Nothing else has boundaries or can be subject to a claim of ownership until they are differentiated from me. Thus the very first identification of property rights has to do with this primary identification and separation.

        Second, I then must evaluate my relationship in context with everything else which is not me. If I have an exclusive right of control and use of something, I assert personal property rights to that object. If I have shared right of control or use I assert shared or co-mingled property rights. And if I acknowledge someone else's personal property rights to something I acknowledge my lack of even shared right of control.

        As soon as I breathe air, I assert a personal property ownership over it. When it leaves my body I forego that ownership. It is fleeting. Water is the same way. When we talk about water rights (which are a big deal in my area), what we are talking about are water use rights - who gets to make first claim on water from such-and-such a source.
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        • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
          Obviously the discussion is about property rights, not things without regard to human action. Understanding of moral principles as the base of property rights, and individualism in particular, are essential.
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  • Posted by evlwhtguy 7 years, 2 months ago
    Had an interesting conversation with my Nephew in law...a west point graduate...right after he graduated from law school....where he was subsequently sent after a year in Iraq. He told me none of us actually own real property ...in a legal sense...we actually own a bundle of "Rights" to the use of the property. An interesting thing the law.....I guess when you consider we are mortal and Real property is eternal...it makes some sense, but you are left feeling like the Robinson Caruso in the above example, when he finds the other person on "His" island. In the final analsys...guns make for property rights. As long as you are strong enough to defend your property...you own it...but the minute someone...like uncle Sam, Adolph Hitler, Genghis Kahn or Joe Stalin comes along with more and decides to take it...it isn't yours!
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    • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
      Rights are moral principles defining and sanctioning freedom of action in a social context. Property rights means the right to use and disposal. Without the social context there would be no facts leading to the concept of property rights. The legal system is supposed to implement and protect that. Every political system presupposes an ethics.

      "Bundle of rights" refers to the fact that you can have a partial right of use, such as an easement over land, so the full right of use is divided among different individuals in a well-defined manner.

      Using guns to steal and violate rights does not negate the principle of the rights. The raw cynicism of 'guns make for property rights' is anti-intellectual 'might makes right' hooliganism, not a theory of property rights.
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      • Posted by evlwhtguy 7 years, 2 months ago
        Unfortunately when someone sticks an AK47 up your ass and pulls the trigger, that transfers all your principled rights to the person pulling the trigger. Nations do the same thing....the Japanese in Manchuria in the 1930s for instance.....and governments do the same thing every day....even our own.
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        • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
          Thugs do not "transfer rights"; they violate them.
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          • Posted by evlwhtguy 7 years, 2 months ago
            I think you are being a little too esoteric here. You need to be a little bit more practical. What are the rights are transferred legally or illegally they're still gone. Having the moral High Ground does one no good whatsoever as one's being dragged off to the camp or tossed in a ditch with the other Corpses. Unfortunately it does in fact happened.
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            • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
              Appealing to philosophical justification instead of the fist is not esoteric. We have rights as moral principles in accordance with our nature as rational beings who require a code of ethics to live. Those principles don't go away when a thug beats you over the head and takes what you have.

              Of course you lose your possessions (or your life) to thugs who get away with it; your rights have been abrogated. That is why we require a government to protect our rights from arbitrary use of force.

              Hitlers and Obamas don't justify the cynical principle that "guns make for property rights", which reduces the whole intellectual argument to one gang against another.
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              • Posted by evlwhtguy 7 years, 2 months ago
                The challenge you have here is that you are relying on this gang you talk about [ie: government] to enforce your property rights.
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                • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                  Establishing and acknowledging an intellectual basis for property rights is not relying on a gang. We all know very well how inconsistently government protects our rights. I have been defending private property rights against government agencies and their pressure group lobbyists and anti-private property rights activists for years, based on principles I know are correct. It doesn't make me think that "guns make for property rights". If it did we might as well give up now, concede there is no such principle as or justification for property rights, and become barbarians because the other side has a lot more "guns".
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                  • -1
                    Posted by evlwhtguy 7 years, 2 months ago
                    I just have to chuckle at people like you......all you " intellectual basis for property rights " will fly right out the window when a thug takes your property. The fact that I understand there are thugs out there doesn't mean I agree that it is good or the best way....it is just reality.

                    Looking at you intellectualizing I have to wonder if you have ever been in a street fight....do you understand that there really are people in the world that just don't give a shit about all your high minded ideals? These people do exist outside of the television and the internet chat rooms. They are real. You will occupy the moral high ground...but if they are strong enough they take what you think is yours.
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                    • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                      So you cynically become one of them, conceding Mao's principles about power from a gun as an ideological base.

                      I defend property rights on principle in addition to having spend many years, fighting in the political realm and stopping government agencies taking private property rights, accomplishing far more than you can imagine while you stand by cynically chuckling against what you call "intellectualizing".
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                      • -3
                        Posted by evlwhtguy 7 years, 2 months ago
                        Yeh bud....you wouldnt last 12 seconds in a street fight. I am in fact cynically chuckling at you. I sincerly hope you retain the moral high ground and never have cause to wise up. Wiseing up sucks. Ignorance is truly a bessed state. I hope you never have to come out of it.
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  • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
    In the Question and Answer session following Ayn Rand's speech to the US Military Academy at West Point in 1974, she addressed the issue of the Native Americans.

    "Since the Indians did not have the concept of property or property rights - they didn't have a settled society; they had predominantly nomadic "cultures" - they didn't have rights to the land and there was no reason for anyone to grant them rights they had not conceived of and were not using. It's wrong to attack a country that respects (even tries to respect) individual rights. If you do, you are an aggressor and are morally wrong. But if a "country" does not protect rights - if a group of tribesmen are the slaves of their tribal chief- why should you respect the "rights" that they don't have or respect." -- Ayn Rand Answers: the Best of Q&A edited by Robert Mayhew. New American Library, 2005, 1st ed., p. 103)

    The Right to Rob Banks

    Ayn Rand's statements there are wrong on several grounds. First and foremost, this "Cowboys and Indians" view of the natives is wholly incomplete. Most were settled into communities that depended on farming enhanced with hunting. Some of those communities were larger than Boston, Philadelphia, New York, or Charleston of the time -- and remained so for perhaps 100 years. In particular, the Cherokee had adapted many of the customs of the Europeans, including an alphabet -- and slavery.

    Our conceptual failure is rooted in the White maps of the time that showed rough areas - Seneca, Iroquois, Erie, etc. - and never put "dots" with names where those "villages" of 10,000 were -- and never gave those villages special names like "New York." (If you think that "Home" is not a name, just keep that in mind when space aliens claim our planet because we only call it "Dirt" not something special like New Sirius 7.)

    How is this the right to rob banks?

    Violent right wing militias rob banks by displaying "warrants" and "court orders." The Federal government has effectively nationalized the banks, even our much-touted BB&T. They are socialist non-property... as are the public parks, airports, schools, roads... So, any "civilized" person has the right to take those un-propertied non-assets -- or so it could be claimed.

    By Ayn Rand's theory that the better man has more rights, anyone can take anything from anyone else whom they can condemn. It is unlikely that Switzerland, Lichtenstein, the Cayman Islands, and Singapore could unite to militarily conquer the United States. But a cartel of economically unfettered capitalist nations could conquer America financially - and maybe already have...

    Maybe that conquest was not carried out by primitive tribal collections called "nations." Perhaps it was done by advanced capitalist organizations called "corporations." The complaints that "our" "nation" is being "sold" by "debt" is just the cry of uncivilized primitives who cannot conceptualized modern financial management.

    ... or so it could be claimed...

    Lest you read the wrong intention here, all I am saying is that Ayn Rand's condemnation of the native Americans is not sufficient for the conceptual foundation of property.

    I agree with the statements in this discussion that the concept of property begins with "mine." Property is created by human intelligence.
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    • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
      Ayn Rand was not wrong and did not have a "theory that the better man has more rights" or "anyone can take anything from anyone else whom they can condemn". She did not say that "condemnation of the native Americans is ... sufficient for the conceptual foundation of property." This has nothing to do with "dots on a map".
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  • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
    There is no such thing as property that is a short hand.. There are property rights and you have property rights in things such as a book or land (farming) or mining of minerals.


    "For me, the single problem with "mixing your labor" is that breaking into a bank vault takes a lot of work. You might say that the vault is someone else's property. But Robinson Crusoe might have enjoyed 20 years on "his" island before the original owner returned to check on his property."

    This is complete nonsense. Locke was about creating value not random effort or destructive effort. There is an Adam Mossoff paper on point.
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    • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
      The principle of property rights is a consequence of and inherent in individualism, not something deduced from 'mixing labor'. The discussion of mixing labor serves only to show how property can be claimed and specified once the moral principle is understood.
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      • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
        No property rights are the result of creating value.


        Any material element or resource which, in order to become of use or value to men, requires the application of human knowledge and effort, should be private property—by the right of those who apply the knowledge and effort.

        Capitalism: The Unknown Ideal “The Property Status of the Airwaves,”
        Capitalism: The Unknown Ideal, 122
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        • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
          The concept and principle of private property rights require egoism. No altruist or collectivist ethics cares who created the value. People become confused over Locke's "mixing" because they think it is presented as a way to deduce property rights with no moral context.
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          • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
            There is nothing altruist or collectivist ethics in Locke. All proper property rights are private.
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            • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
              The Enlightenment was pro-individualistic and reason. If they hadn't had that no arguments about 'mixing labor' would have led them to embrace property rights.
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              • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
                Where do property rights come from?

                Are you saying Locke was not part of the Enlightenment?
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                • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                  Yes he was, but much of the guiding proper ethics was only implicit and had not been formulated. Property rights are moral principles that must be identified like any other philosophical principles. They are objective, not 'intrinsic' to 'mixing labor'. Start with egoism, then apply it in a social context for principles of rights, then establish objective legal definitions and procedures to protect our rights.
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                  • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
                    Your are on a nonsensical path.
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                    • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                      It's the hierarchy in Objectivism, not nonsensical. Law depends on political philosophy which depends on ethics.
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                      • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                        This does not mean that "Any material element or resource which, in order to become of use or value to men, requires the application of human knowledge and effort, should be private property—by the right of those who apply the knowledge and effort" and the rest of what Ayn Rand wrote about the mind as the source of value in the material world isn't relevant to property rights principles and law -- it is essential. The hierarchical logical dependence of law on political philosophy and that on ethics isn't an empty structure of floating abstractions: All of the knowledge of the role of man's mind and life on a physical earth is in the meaning, and is crucial at each stage in the hierarchy in formulating the principles.
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                        • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
                          You are spending a lot of effort trying to ignore the obvious Rand and Locke were saying the same thing Property rights are the result of creating value, which creates a moral claim over the use of something.
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                          • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                            I am not "trying to ignore" anything. Locke did not have Ayn Rand's ethics. The egoistic ethics of the Enlightenment was only implicit. The justification of property rights requires more than an assertion about mixing labor with land. Locke was better on this than he is often given credit for but his formulation has led to confusion that leads people to dismiss his argument as a non-sequitur, which properly conceived it is not.
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                            • Posted by dbhalling 7 years, 2 months ago
                              No you are confusing what Locke meant. Both Rand and Locke derive that you own yourself. If you own yourself then those things in which you create value you have property rights.
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                              • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
                                Ethical egoism precedes the concept of ownership. Without a social context 'ownership' would not arise as a moral concept, and ethics begins with and remains fundamentally about the self. The concept of rights is implied for a social context.

                                Locke had to understand that at least implicitly -- the same way the founders of this country with their 'right to life, liberty, property and pursuit of happiness' understood an implicit egoism despite the explicit traditional ethics of the time -- even though Locke did not have the Objectivist ethics.

                                Without that he could not have thought the way he did about property rights. Today there is a lot of confusion over Locke's 'mixing labor' argument: there is so much Rationalism today that it's often expected that property rights must be somehow deduced rationalistically, and seeing nothing but 'mixing labor' think it's a non sequitur.
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  • Posted by $ Olduglycarl 7 years, 2 months ago
    I remember the Robinson Crusoe argument

    The basic unit of property is your person; body and mind-(assuming you have one) AND the results of your labor, physical or Mental.
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  • Posted by Jstork 7 years, 2 months ago
    This reminds me of the movie "Avatar." What if there were primitive (according to our standards) occupants living on Mars when we finally get there? How would we handle it this time around? Purchase portions in exchange for things the Martians value? What if the First Nations would not have let us procure the land and the newcomers would have subsequently let them be? Fun stuff to ponder.
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  • Posted by Jstork 7 years, 2 months ago
    All I know is that the government can take "my" property at their discretion of claiming it is for public betterment. They take some of the money I earn with my labour in the form of taxes and give portions of it to those who are undeserving or who have not earned it except through some sense of entitlement. Don't get me wrong: I believe in paying for taxes for the infrastructure I use, unlike Trump who can afford to swing in the legal loopholes that allow him to avoid paying taxes (from what I heard in the media). It should be: my labour, my money, and my property. When t comes to new and previously unclaimed lands, I begin to struggle for an answer. The proposed missions to Mars are a good example. Does the first one to arrive get to claim the planet and sell off portions to buyers (assuming there are not current occupants)? That is a tough one.
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    • Posted by ewv 7 years, 2 months ago
      If you claim something is unowned you claim what you are using. There is no intrinsic answer to how to specify and limit that. Within the range of options available objective laws settle on one so that everyone knows what it is.
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  • Posted by jetgraphics 7 years, 2 months ago
    Kudos to the world's greatest propaganda ministry. . .
    They've convinced millions of people not to read their own laws, nor comprehend what they read.
    . . .
    In America, under the republican form, absolutely owned property is known as private property - a constitutionally protected endowed right.
    Qualified ownership is known as estate (like "real estate") and is a revenue taxable privilege.
    Since rights protected by law cannot be taxed by law, only privileges can be taxed. That's why you will never find one statute nor constitution that levies an excise tax on private property ownership.
    You may want to ask your public servants how your endowed right to absolutely own private property transformed into the revenue taxable privilege to hold real estate.
    But do not be surprised at their silence. . .
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  • Posted by CircuitGuy 7 years, 2 months ago
    " It is easy to imagine many people each working the "whole island" planting here, hunting there, discovering each other... Now what?"
    It's a fortunate thing that so much value comes from things people build. In pre-industrial times, when the value was in the land, the strong controlled the land and said gods wanted it that way. Critics said the gods actually wanted humans to share the land fairly.

    This is becoming a moot point when most value in the world is in things people create for one another. Maybe not moot, but less important. Someone on the island can get a Raspberry Pi an old TV set, and place to access the Internet, and she can write code worth the cost of the equipment plus a bunch of land plus labor and equipment to farm it. It doesn't matter whether she owns land because it's not a key factor of production anymore.
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    • Posted by $ 7 years, 2 months ago
      I agree that to be meaningful, we have to get past "land." Too much of our sense of property law comes from land. Two people cannot occupy the same place at the same time. But two people can have the same idea at the same time.

      I don't have many answers here, just questions to frame the problems.

      Also, see Lucky's comment above.
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      • Posted by dwlievert 7 years, 2 months ago
        Mike:

        I would argue that "property" is a moral concept. Once understood as such, then rational determination of its definition involving "ownership" can then be derived.
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  • Posted by coaldigger 7 years, 2 months ago
    I think that from the time of the caveman to today private property is what you can take and defend. We have engaged government to defend our property for us according to rules that we have agreed upon. In earlier times it was believed that everything belonged to the superior being that created the earth. Craftily there were those that added that there was a Divine Right given to some mortals to be the caretakers. Most of history is composed of squabbles among those Kings as to how the pie was to be sliced. The United States is based on individual rights and there are no rights unless you have property rights so our courts are the councils by which the government determines how to apply force to the protection of the property rights we claim. Since we are fools, we tend to abandon our claims in the name of altruism and screw up the rules but that will ultimately lead to the fall of our system and we will be back to Kings, Warlords and Mad Max like tribes that will take what they can defend.
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