What is Law

Posted by JeanPaulZodeaux 11 years, 8 months ago to Government
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"All laws must be objective (and objectively justifiable): men must know clearly, and in advance of taking an action, what the law forbids them to do (and why), what constitutes a crime and what penalty they will incur if they commit it."

~Ayn Rand; The Nature of Government~

While this is a clear and concise understanding of law, in several of her writings Rand makes the mistake of contrasting "objective law" with "non-objective law" and in doing so lends credence to the notion that any legislation that comes down the pike is law. However, in science we understand a law to be statements that describe, predict and often explain why a phenomena behaves as it does in nature. In this regard Rand has come fairly close in describing law and it is only her willingness to equate non-objective legislation, or decree as law that creates a problem.

"When men are caught in the trap of non-objective law, when their work, future and livelihood are at the mercy of a bureaucrat’s whim, when they have no way of knowing what unknown “influence” will crack down on them for which unspecified offense, fear becomes their basic motive, if they remain in the industry at all—and compromise, conformity, staleness, dullness, the dismal grayness of the middle-of-the-road are all that can be expected of them."

~Vast Quicksands - The Objectivist Newsleter July 1963, 25~

There is no such thing as "non-objective law" only non-objective understandings of law. The dictators flourish when the non-objective understandings of law become "common sense". When bogus legislation is treated as law, by enforcer and the enforced alike the dictator has achieved one of their ends. If we are to objectively know the law, as Rand points out, we must know what constitutes a crime. A crime requires a victim and a victim requires a right that has been disparaged or denied. The law then, is not a set of rules to create social control, the law is unalienable rights.

Continued...



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  • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
    Reply to post by jmlesniewski :

    "It is impossible to have a conversation with someone who wants to talk at you, not with you."

    Then stop talking at me. Instead why not just speak to the topic? Ad hominem attacks are just logical fallacies and don't do anything at all in terms of making an argument one way or the other in regards to the topic.

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  • Posted by BambiB 11 years, 8 months ago
    In law school, they teach an entire course on "theories of the law". "What is the law?" is a simple question with a variety of complicated answers. It can be anything from ink on a page to a tool for societal change to "whatever the judge in a case says it is, until overruled by another judge."

    That latter is the school of "legal realism". Make of it what you will... but there are easily another half dozen "theories" - and no one tells the budding lawyers which theories are "right". In many ways, the law is what people make of it.

    Ironically, in countries with a jury system, it is the people who most often pervert the law. Spill a cup of hot coffee in your lap? The judge isn't going to award three million dollars for that - but a jury might (and has).

    Convict a man for a firearms mechanical malfunction (nobody was hurt) and send him to prison for three years? Yep. Juries do that too.

    Not only do we get the government we deserve... we get the law we deserve as well. Unfortunately, that "we" include a large number of morons who richly deserve Hobbes' "life in the state of nature", but we have thus far not awarded them the lives they so richly deserve.
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    • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
      The title is not a question. This is why there is no question mark behind it. It is a declarative statement, and the opening post is a hypothesis.

      In terms of legalism, "law" students are overwhelmed with far too many "theories" on law. In science students are not overwhelmed with various theories of law, and in science all law is simple, true, universal and absolute. I am arguing that law is law and the unalienable rights of people are law and as such the law is simple, true, universal, and absolute. The reason that juries today tend to render so many boneheaded verdicts is that those allowed on a jury panel are ignorant of the law. They are instructed by the court and the attorneys on what the "law" is and all to often are given directed verdicts by judges who have disregarded the law. Jury nullification is "not allowed" by the current court system and if, when choosing the jury panel, several indicate they have no regard for the legislation criminalizing people and indicate they will not render a guilty verdict based upon the legislation alone, they will be dismissed. In Missoula County of Montana a few years ago, potential jurors repeatedly told the court they would not convict a defendant for possession of a few buds of marijuana. The prosecutor complained to the judge that the prosecution was entitled to a fair trial, the judge agreed and called a recess demanding the defendant, defense attorney and prosecutor work out a plea bargain. An eventual Alford plea was hammered out and the defendant walked out of court a "free man". The defendant did not do any jail time, but he was certainly entered into the criminal justice system because of this Alford plea.

      An Alford plea is when the defendant admits that the prosecution has enough evidence to convict but does not plead guilty to the crime. Given that the Missoula County judge compelled this plea agreement due to the fact that they could not find a jury pool willing to convict, the defendant taking an Alford plea was nonsensical. He admitted the prosecution had the necessary means to convict when it was clear they did not and he should have demanded a dismissal or a trial by jury and refused any plea agreement.

      It is not just juries who make boneheaded decisions. Defendants make wrong decisions all the time, even when it is perfectly clear the jury will set them free.

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  • Posted by Solver 11 years, 8 months ago
    A typical Federal law, passed by the Congress, the Senate and signed by the president today, is something nobody fully understands and most of the individuals who voted to approve the original bill did not even read it. What is their excuse for these kinds of laws? Who's ignorant here?
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    • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
      Ignorantia juris non excusat is a common law principle since time immemorial. Ignorance of the law is no excuse. This is why I make the arguments I make and you effectively illustrate the necessity to know the law. The law, not legislative acts that can't even be understood by the highly intelligent let alone those of of average intelligence. This is why there is the Void for Vagueness doctrine which is most certainly a valid legal argument in a federal court or even a state or local court. If the legislation is written in a way as to render it incomprehensible it has no force of weight or validity and becomes void.

      It is also important to realize that judicial review helps to illustrate that legislation is not law, at best merely evidence of law, and at worst, flat out unlawful.

      When Congress continually legislates acts they don't even know what is stated within that act this is very much a reflection on the people who established and who are tasked with stewarding that government...We the People.

      People get the government they deserve.


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  • Posted by Signofthedollar 11 years, 8 months ago
    Your post reminds me of a question I wish to have answered or at least get a opinion.

    "How many law's does one need to govern a free society?

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    • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
      According to the U.S. Government Printing Office there are more than 200,000 pages in the United States Code (USC) alone, then there is the Uniform Commercial Code and I have no idea how many pages span that Code.

      The United States imprison more people per capita than any other industrialized nation in the world. That's more than China and more than the Soviet Union at the height of their tyranny. As of 2008 it was reported that there were 2.3 million people residing in American prisons, and Congress and state legislatures keep adding and adding legislation to their books and it has apparently not occurred to many legislatures that they have the authority to repeal as well as legislate.

      The more acts of legislation added to the books the more insane the nation becomes. So many bogus acts of legislation exist on a federal, state, and local level that its sum effect has been that more and more people have no regard for the law. This lack of regard is not because of the law, but rather due to equating legislation with law.

      The short answer to your question: "How many law's does one need to govern a free society?"

      The answer is as many laws that exist naturally. The gross expansion of legislative acts is often justified as a method with dealing with new technologies, but these technologies did not come about because someone invented new laws of physics and technology obeys the laws of physics and when a just government is established and kept that way, so too do the acts of legislation enacted and enforced by that just government.

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  • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
    "Each of us has a natural right — from God — to defend his person, his liberty, and his property. These are the three basic requirements of life, and the preservation of any one of them is completely dependent upon the preservation of the other two. For what are our faculties but the extension of our individuality? And what is property but an extension of our faculties? If every person has the right to defend even by force — his person, his liberty, and his property, then it follows that a group of men have the right to organize and support a common force to protect these rights constantly. Thus the principle of collective right — its reason for existing, its lawfulness — is based on individual right. And the common force that protects this collective right cannot logically have any other purpose or any other mission than that for which it acts as a substitute. Thus, since an individual cannot lawfully use force against the person, liberty, or property of another individual, then the common force — for the same reason — cannot lawfully be used to destroy the person, liberty, or property of individuals or groups.

    " Such a perversion of force would be, in both cases, contrary to our premise. Force has been given to us to defend our own individual rights. Who will dare to say that force has been given to us to destroy the equal rights of our brothers? Since no individual acting separately can lawfully use force to destroy the rights of others, does it not logically follow that the same principle also applies to the common force that is nothing more than the organized combination of the individual forces?

    "If this is true, then nothing can be more evident than this: The law is the organization of the natural right of lawful defense. It is the substitution of a common force for individual forces. And this common force is to do only what the individual forces have a natural and lawful right to do: to protect persons, liberties, and properties; to maintain the right of each, and to cause justice to reign over us all."

    ~Frederic Bastiat - The Law~

    Any legislative authority that prohibits the people government serves but allows government officials to act upon is not a lawful act, it is instead a whimsical and arbitrary declaration of authority that does not objectively exist. If people cannot steal it follows governments cannot either. If people cannot murder, it follows governments cannot either.

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  • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
    Absolutely I would like to continue the discussion. Discourse is what keeps us from falling prey to dogma. I would like to hear more of what you mean by Godel's Incompleteness Theorems. My understanding is that there are two. If Godel's Incompleteness Theorems are relevant, which one or both? I realize you have not yet formed an opinion, but I thought I would ask this anyway.

    In terms of rights, I think there might be some validity to the first incompleteness theorem. It is arguable that we don't know all the rights of people. An example of this is the continuing debate over abortion. On the one hand the right of a woman to make an informed choice about her own body is a reasonable assumption, but if we are to understand rights - outside of defense - as that action that causes no harm then we are confronted with the fetus which may or may not be a person. Yet another person that might deserve consideration in regards to abortion is the father. Does a woman have the right to terminate a fetus that was sired by a man expecting to enjoy his right to be a father? If this man has this right then is the abortion a demonstrable harm? There are many questions regarding a woman's choice to have an abortion that it might be fairly argued we don't know enough to determine whether this is a right or not.

    My belief is that as the courts have ruled on this it is less by the standard of axiomatic law as natural rights (negative) and has been more determined under the understanding of "civil rights" (positive).

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  • Posted by $ jmlesniewski 11 years, 8 months ago
    I think the dictionary gives a pretty good definition of law:

    "The system of rules that a particular country or community recognizes as regulating the actions of its members and may enforce by the imposition of penalties"
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    • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
      This definition is similar to sociologists definition of law, and sociologist Donald Black that is being taught in universities states that "all law is governmental social control". If you buy that I've got some prime real estate on Planet X you might be interested in.

      Let's ask Mubarak what he thinks of "governmental social control".

      By this definition you've provided, John Galt is a criminal. Do you honestly believe Ayn Rand was selling criminality as heroism?

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      • Posted by Signofthedollar 11 years, 8 months ago
        Yes she was. Remember she stated so it "Atlas Shrugged". The government described in AS is exactly what the definition described. Ragnar, Readen, Galt all were criminals under that government. They of course were the hero's because of the horrors of collectivism.
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        • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
          Government cannot invent law, they can either obey it or disobey it just the same as any individual. What crime did John Galt commit? Who did he harm by refusing to produce? This is the question.

          It could be argued that he caused all of "society" harm by not producing. Are you willing to make that argument?

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          • Posted by Signofthedollar 11 years, 8 months ago
            From your inference, the answer to my question is three. Correct? Or is it 10 or 613?
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            • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
              One could distill, legislatively, law down to one act of legislation and have it effectively describe the law. That one act of legislation would be that no person anywhere at any time has the lawful authority to deny or disparage the rights of another. Any need or clarification is to appease the sophists.

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              • Posted by Signofthedollar 11 years, 8 months ago
                Finally!!!!! So the actual structure is in the "rights" and the only act of legislation is a negative one. Correct? I am no longer disappointed.
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                • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
                  I am pleased you are no longer disappointed and please forgive my pedantry, but it is not finally, I declare rights that structure in my opening post which is then continued in a post below. I should have provided a link to Frederic Bastiat's The Law. Yes to your question, in the negative. Bastiat speaks to the negative versus the positive very effectively. Here is a link to his doctrine:

                  http://bastiat.org/en/the_law.html

                  I genuinely hope you enjoy it.
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      • Posted by $ jmlesniewski 11 years, 8 months ago
        In a system of non-objective laws, heroes are criminals. The strikers in Atlas Shrugged were all criminals in the novel, especially if they quit after Directove 10-289 was "passed."
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        • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
          The hero's of Atlas Shrugged were considered to be criminals by the mystics, priest class sect of whimsy and arbitrariness. There is no such thing as a "non-objective laws", there are laws and there are legislative acts. Legislative acts can effectively describe law or disregard law, but an act of legislation is no more "law" than the map is the territory, the word is the thing defined and a picture of a pipe is a pipe.

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          • Posted by Signofthedollar 11 years, 8 months ago
            Thank you Rene' Margritte. You do like to see your words on paper don't you? Why don't you give me a useful answer or comment. So far you have done nothing but correct us.
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            • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
              Of course, this is simply not true. I answered your initial question directly and you have declined thus far to speak to that instead sulking because I have challenged the effectiveness of using dictionaries to understand concepts such as law and selfishness. Particularly law! Why not look up the definition of objectivism and declare yourself informed?

              You asked for a dialogue and now you are annoyed because you got one.

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              • Posted by Signofthedollar 11 years, 8 months ago
                Dialogue not diatribe. I am not annoyed. Disappointed in you yes. Because I thought you would bring something more to this than challenging my knowledge of objectivism. I am informed more than you realize.
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                • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
                  I have made no judgments on what you are informed of or not. I have answered your questions to the best of my ability. I have also challenged the idea that dictionaries provide useful context when it comes to the law. This is what you call "diatribe".

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          • Posted by $ jmlesniewski 11 years, 8 months ago
            Criminals are people who disobey the "legislative acts" of the government that presides over the "country" they reside in.
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            • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
              Criminals are people who deny or disparage the rights of some other person. They are the ones who victimize some person. This is the rational and reasonable way to define a criminal. Use irrational and unreasonable methods of defining a criminal and you wind up imprisoning more people per capita than any other industrialized nation in the world. Why would you defend that?

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              • Posted by $ jmlesniewski 11 years, 8 months ago
                "Criminal" identifies the concrete "a person who people disobeys the "legislative acts" of the government that presides over the "country" he resides in." That type of person exists in reality objectively. The concept and label were created to identify that type of person so communication could occur in which that type of person is discussed.
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                • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
                  One has to wonder what precisely what you mean by "concrete". If you are arguing that "criminal" exists in the material or physical form as opposed to the abstract, then how would you explain repealed legislation or overturned legislation for unconstitutionality? The 18th Amendment was repealed, but for the period of years it was accepted as "lawful" manufacturers and distributors of distilled spirits were considered "criminal" but today they are not. That is hardly concrete.

                  Edit to Add: While I am arguing that there is certainly a concreteness to criminality, my argument is that this concreteness lies in the denial or disparagement of a right. No legislative act need be codified in order to give validity to the right, or to explain the criminality. The difference between what you are arguing and I am arguing is that your argument falls prey to whimsy and arbitrariness. My argument does not. As long as it is an unalienable right and understood as such, and once this unalienable right has been violated, a concrete crime is established. Today, tomorrow, and always. There is no lawful authority to repeal or overturn an unalienable right, rights that belong to all people.
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                  • Posted by $ jmlesniewski 11 years, 8 months ago
                    Honestly, I can't determine your intent as this is a message board, but you are making it very difficult to have even a basic conversation, so I have to ask:

                    Are you intentionally or unintentionally making conversation difficult?

                    I ask because it was extremely clear:
                    -What "concrete" means (yes, material and physical)
                    -There is a temporal condition to a person's existence (yes, someone who lived during Prohibition would be a criminal for brewing alcohol whereas someone who lives now would not be a criminal for brewing alcohol)

                    Yet, despite that^ being extremely clear, you focused in on it as if it was some hole in my statement. I can think of several reasons you would do so (both intentionally and unintentionally), but, as I said earlier, it is impossible to determine that over the internet, so instead of making suppositions I asked the question I did above:

                    Are you intentionally or unintentionally making conversation difficult?
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                    • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
                      I am not convinced you are being "honest" at all, and you are not any easier to have a basic conversation with than you claim I am. I have also made my intent clear in this basic conversation you find so difficult. Since it is inarguable that there exists judicial review and repeal, this should easily demonstrate the fallibility of legislation.

                      I cannot know how much of what I posted you have actually read, but I have stated and unequivocally so that it is important for people to understand the law, and if I was not so clear about legislation allow me to try and be more concise now. It is important people understand the clear difference between legislation and law. Solver pointed out a while ago that legislation often passed today by Congress is difficult for people to understand. I replied to that post by pointing to the Void for Vagueness doctrine that states - in part - that legislation that cannot be understood by any person of average intelligence is null and void. This is yet even more evidence to the lack of concreteness you claim legislative acts have when declaring a certain action "criminal".

                      It is also too irrational to rely solely upon legislation to determine what is law. You sure seem to be advocating this irrationality as a determination of what law is. You seem to be advocating whimsy and arbitrary nature as a valid determination of law. I clearly do not agree with this. I suspect that this is what you find difficult, my unwillingness to go into agreement with whimsy and irrationality as a valid determination of law. There is a better way to determine law than what you are arguing. This better way is not an invention of mine but I advocate it. When people understand that a crime must come with a victim. When they understand that a victim is someone who has their right(s) violated now we can all understand law in a concrete way. To suggest that law is concrete until it is not only keeps understanding of law in a grey area, that then facilitates the priest class lawyer sect to utter mystical incantations keeping the laity in awe and mystified.
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                      • Posted by $ jmlesniewski 11 years, 8 months ago
                        I now understand you are doing so unintentionally. Thus I say, this conversation is no longer valuable or enjoyable for me, and I leave you with the following piece of advice:

                        The entire English language (or any language for that matter) does not need to be redefined or understood newly due to Ayn Rand discovering Objectivism. Words identify the world as it *is*, not as it *ought to be*. Yes, all laws *ought to be* just, but a lot of laws *aren't* just. The condition of being unjust doesn't make them not laws, and stating that it does make them not laws means *every* conversation would require defining *every* word before it was started.

                        Also, I don't appreciate being called dishonest when:
                        1. I state I am being honest.
                        2. Honesty is extremely important to me.
                        3. Honesty is one of the virtues in John Galt's speech (or do we not have that understood shared context and it must be stated explicitly as well?)

                        Thank you. I hope you enjoy The Gulch and find what you're looking for here.
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                        • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
                          "It is not advisable, James, to venture unsolicited opinions. You should spare yourself the embarrassing discovery of their exact value to your listener."

                          ~Francisco d'Anconia - Atlas Shrugged~

                          All one has to do is examine the etymology of many words to understand that words are redefined and understood newly all the time. Indeed, you authored a thread using the word "myth" that has nothing at all to do with its etymology or anything to do with mythology and was used - in its newly understood meaning - to mean falsehood.

                          I wouldn't even have an issue with your "honesty" if you hadn't deflected from the topic and attempt to make this thread about me. I would have found it much more honest if you simply just argued the topic and not me.

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    • Posted by Signofthedollar 11 years, 8 months ago
      Dictionaries are good places to start. If it is a system of rules is it always an axiomatic system? That would help define it's structure and how many law's or regulations are needed or possible. I think it can expand infinitely (help us!) but there is a fixed smallest quantity to optimum government. I may be wrong, hence the discussion.
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      • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
        Look up selfishness in the dictionary. Do you think that's a good place to start?

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        • Posted by Signofthedollar 11 years, 8 months ago
          Provide something more constructive to the question. That is a good place to start.
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          • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
            If by "the question" you mean the one you initially asked, I answered that question, if you do not believe it was "constructive" enough then speak to that instead of expecting me to guess what it is you want as an answer. If you mean by "constructive" that dictionaries do this, then perhaps you need it explained to you that in The Virtue of Selfishness, Rand rejects - and rightly so - the dictionaries definition of selfishness. She does this because as it is defined it offers up a contradiction. Can you find the contradiction in the definition of selfishness as defined by modern lexicographers?
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            • Posted by Signofthedollar 11 years, 8 months ago
              The contradiction of the definition of selfishness is the not in question. Your so-called answer was as many as exist naturally. Well what is the number? Or how do we get to the number. I agree with your diatribe but that was not in any way moving toward an answer.
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              • Posted by 11 years, 8 months ago
                And yet, here you are replying here instead of replying to my "so called answer". If you are not happy with my answer, why not provide a number yourself.

                There is a reason for the Ninth Amendment and it is more than establishing that the enumerated rights are not the only rights retained by the people, it also implies in declining to enumerate these other rights that they are too numerous to list.

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