If the only use of force that is moral is reactive, is it possible to have pro-active reactionary force?
Posted by Robbie53024 12 years, 3 months ago to Philosophy
Would Objectivists find pre-emptive use of force to prevent or reduce force about to be used against them, moral?
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I don't think that knowing that another is going to strike you in the nose, requires an Objectivist to stand there and wait until he's been hit in the nose. That wouldn't make rational sense except in some progressive twisted martyr morality.
A lot of this is really circumstantial but it's not like the objectivist response is crazy. If you see someone in immanent danger you can help them. You don't have to, and you shouldn't act irrationally but you can.
If that's the case, how about a parent who is forcibly detaining their child who had tried to run away and the child asks for help? Do you use force on the parent to free the child?
But more, Objectivist are free to form associations and contract with others to provide a stronger defense. There is no value from defensive force obtained either individually or association wise, other than the continuation of one's life or the free use of one's own property.
If that's not what you think those statements mean, then please explain.
An Objectivist would weigh the loss of life of its soldiers against the initiation of attacking a rogue nation, looking first to other means, such as economic boycott which is consistent with Capitalism
http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0116260/
but now you are getting into theory of law.
A person living in a society gives up their right to be judge, jury and prosecutor. They can only act for immediate self-defense, based on Locke's Social Contract.
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