If the only use of force that is moral is reactive, is it possible to have pro-active reactionary force?
Posted by Robbie53024 12 years, 3 months ago to Philosophy
Would Objectivists find pre-emptive use of force to prevent or reduce force about to be used against them, moral?
How do you figure that I invoked some "social contract?"
Just a suggestion.
This goes back to the is ought gap. Which AR attempted to solve but I don't think she did.
Oops, I forgot that I need to write a review.
This is addressed in our novel, PoJ, btw...
A man lays dead in the street. A murder, accident, natural causes-the facts matter
The Law of Gravity stands, but the actual path a object will take depends on its position, initial velocity, acceleration in an arc, etc
Does an immoral individual lose all rights?
How can it be moral in the collective but not moral in the individual (or vice versa)?
Plus, I have a personal issue with the term "outlaw," as laws are arbitrary and created by man, not derived as innate rights.
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