If the only use of force that is moral is reactive, is it possible to have pro-active reactionary force?
Posted by Robbie53024 12 years, 3 months ago to Philosophy
Would Objectivists find pre-emptive use of force to prevent or reduce force about to be used against them, moral?
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While I accept your proposition as the interpretation of an aggressive act, I'm not so sure that a "true" Objectivist would see things that way (not to say you're not, I don't know what you consider yourself).
I cannot speak for the crew of the Enola Gay, but I can say that when I was a soldier I considered any aggressive act toward free men and women to be a personal attack on me.
None of the people (or at least the vast majority of them) ever threatened force upon the crew of the Enola Gay, nor to the American people generally. They were merely inhabitants of a country the leaders of which had done so.
The justification of dropping the atomic bomb was that only by turning the will of the Japanese people through extreme devastation could the greater evil of continued war and eventual invasion of the Japanese island be averted.
It's not a perfect analogy.