Individual rights are not fundamental, but derived from antecedent arguments. Metaphysical axioms (fundamental) lead to epistemological truths lead to objective ethics lead to the political doctrine of individual rights. For more I recommend reading Objectivism: The Philosophy of Ayn Rand by Leonard Peikoff. Best wishes.
The problem is how to get from an " a priori" axiom to an empirical statement. A is A is a tautology and the statement "man is a being of volitional consciousness" is an empirical statement as Peikoff has affirmed(OPAR). Quine (1951)showed it cant be done so Rand used "consciousness is identification" which is empirical but cannot be derived from "A is A" or existence exists. SO be careful in your advice that metaphysical statements can yield epistemological truths unless you can show an empirical basis for metaphysical truths. I will be presenting a paper in Canada this weekend doing just that. SO be assured Rand is right, it just takes some tidying up of philosophy and science to do it. Peikoff affirms in OPAR that metaphysics and epistemology are "empirical" subjects. The trick has been "grounding" that statement..
Objectivist epistemology, ethics and politics are not "deduced" from axioms. The entire philosophy is both rational and empirical. It does not need "tidying up" and there is no "trick" waiting to be revealed to "ground" it. The traditional rationalist/empiricist dichotomy is a false alternative and "A is A" is not a tautology. See Ayn Rand's discussion of the axiomatic concepts in particular in her Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology, Chapter 6, and Appendix B on "The Analytic-Synthetic Dichotomy" by Leonard Peikoff.
Are Objectivist concepts "a priori" if not deduced from something? As a rep of NBI I read the monthly installments of IOE as they came out in the 60's and discussed science with Miss Rand. So be assured you offered no useful insights or advice. I also had the opportunity to be present for all of Dr. Peikoff's lectures on the writing of OPAR and his concern over the problem of sequence of the derivation of existence, identity, and consciousness which he changed from Miss Rand's sequence. He explained it using the information on observation of his daughter Kira's sequence of acquiring concepts. He explained that the sequence in which one grasps concpets is different from their logical sequence. You may want to reflect on what is a "logical sequence" if it is not deduction. The reason is the problem of getting from an axiom to an empirical statement. The "trick" is in the empirical basis of concepts. If you have read Binswanger, "How We Know" which I read in draft with Harry you know that he contends "consciousness" is an axiom and axioms cannot be defined as they have no genus. So getting from an axiom to an empirical statement about the particular of something is impossible. If I say existence exists and existence is identity those are true by the definition of axioms but cannot be used to differentiated particulars as they apply to all particulars. If you understand why in OPAR Peikoff states metaphysics and epistemology are empirical you will begin to understand the nature of concepts. Remember Miss Rand used "consciousness" only as a term denoting man's consciousness not an abstract platonic universal or axiom. Good luck thinking by deduction about axioms.
Consciousness is not an axiom, it is an observation as is identity and existence. They may be axiomatic in the foundation of objectivism, but they are fundamentally observations.
You are correct it is not an abstract axiom but the name of a particular of a unique set of living things on earth. Miss Rand's formulation is correct granting that she is referring exclusively to man's consciousness. But existence and identity are not observable but are properly axioms. They are the units of the concept axiom. Touche.
I said " observable" not observation. Please note the identity difference. Identity as a concept does not represent any existing particular property of an object. Only particulars of objects are sensible. Thus Hume is Hume and elephants do not turn into novelists. See JJ Gibson on theory of senses and Binswanger on theory of Identity.
Cat, I am not sure that the three axioms were intended to be taken as deductions of each other. At the same time, I also do not think these are therefore tautologies. Rand's theory of concepts as I understand it is that the person conceptualizing notes similar characteristics in existents and then develops a concept based on those similar characteristics, which differ only in their measurements. Then, these concepts may be defined in terms of their genus and their differentiating factor(s). Existence exists is not an empty set of words, but the actual referents in reality.
"There is something of which I am aware" is not a random linguistic construct, but is formed from derivative concepts denoting something concrete (i.e. there is the pressure of the keys on the keyboard which I feel with my finger tips, there is the glow of the backlighting on the monitor which blurs my sight when I shift my gaze, etc.). Can we imagine a world in which it can be proven that existence does not exist? No. Even dark matter has a name, even if it lacks a well defined identity (i.e. the substance which has mass but does not have other properties which matter has).
I do not think that because existence exists could be a proposal about an infinite number of existents that it means that existence exists actually is a claim about an infinite number of existents. Actual existents are always finite in number. It seems strange therefore to say that a priori knowledge is required to conceive of a posteriori knowledge. That seems to be necessary only when we define the universe as something infinite, rather than finite.
Bro axioms cannot be derived from each other. The three objectivist axioms have an order not a deductive logical structure and the order comes from how they are grasped by an active consciousness. ( I do not think consciousness is an axiom, but that is for later) One is first aware that it is, then that it is something particular, then that you are observing it. This is developmental science not philosophy. Please think through the difference between an infinite set of numbers and all possible numbers. Axioms are not about an infinite set of properties but all encompassing of the universe regardless of the number of particulars. The set of infinite numbers is smaller than the set of all numbers. Thus axioms have a special status from which no particular can be derived. If you have concepts of particulars then you have conscious awareness of them and can deduce propositions from their properties forming vast numbers of sets to see if they can be classified by similarities with measurement omission into concepts but you cannot do this with axioms. A priori knowledge about something does not exist. Axioms are self evident necessary statements entailed in all statements. I have to admit I cannot understand the first two sentences of your third paragraph. A posteriori statements come after the observation and make knowledge possible. As I like to say never give up your posterior. Anyway Bro, I've got your back.
Thanks Cat. Still working out the thought process. Its getting later so apologies if this doesn't make sense. Anyway, here goes.
If consciousness is not an axiom, then it does seem to follow that no particular can be derived from axioms. Does that mean consciousness would be given epistemological and not metaphysical status?
Then again, not sure that developmental science can explain the order of existence, identity, consciousness. These three seem bound together, and to operate under the control of a volitional process.
Here are reasons I think the three axioms are bound up in each other. To separate existence from identity is to allow something to be A and not A at the same time. To separate existence from consciousness is to allow for a consciousness without percepts or concepts. To separate consciousness from identity is to allow for consciousness precedes existence.
I think it's difficult when we say consciousness is volitional. How can an axiom be volitional? But I think that is why the Peikoff states that a person must choose to think or to evade. He says, it seems, that there is no alternative to choice. Is consciousness equivalent to thinking? Again, I'm unclear. It would seem consciousness denotes awareness. But awareness seems to be volitional...
Separately: With regard to the first two sentences from the third paragraph of the previous post, what I meant to say was that if existence is taken to mean all existents, then existence cannot be infinite because the number of existents is never infinite.
What I am really curious about is whether the continuum hypothesis is compatible with the assumption that existence is finite. I think so, because each time we subdivide an atom, it yields some number of smaller particles (i.e. puffs of meta energy).
Great point, how can consciousness be volitional if it is an axiom? It isn't. Its an evolved heritable trait of living things which evolved from none living stuff. Heritable traits are acquired over time by variation and selection. Not much of an axiom. But if you are dealing with man's cognitive nature then consciousness is part of existence and identity which require consciousness if they are to be perceived.
Also don't worry about existence is finite. You need to rethink your definition of finite and existence. There are no units to existence because it is all.
Let me add about the a priori "The argument is simple: analytical and a priori true statements cannot be contradicted by synthetic facts. If a statement cannot be contradicted by facts it cannot be meaningful. If it cannot have meaning it is nonsense. Nonsense does not belong in philosophy."
OK, so ice can sink in another universe, but it doesn't sink in ours so it is a posteriori, contingent, synthetic. Ice is solid water is a priori, necessary, analytic. But all this difference explains is which concept was discovered first. We had to see ice melt into water to form the concept that ice is solid water.
Is three less than four? Yes. Is three greater than two? Yes, again. Is three therefore the number that is less than four and greater than two? No. It is the integer between two and four. But does a child have to know the concept of integer to grasp that three is less than four and greater than two? No. It is enough to refer to them as numbers to still retain the meaning of the concept.
Ice is not a priori it is an existent observable and the concept "ice" comes from seeing frozen water. "A Priori ' means prior to observation, knowledge prior to been seen hence God and other chimera.
Its in Maine and I'll be working on it this November. Its actually two antique adzed and pegged barns needing a lot of tlc and a some new beams and couple of posts and new roof. My goal is to stabilize it for major work in the Spring. A philosophical barn raising!!!
Philosophical barn raisings are done by observing what needs to be done, using reason to select the right actions, getting appropriate materials, being virtuous in execution while doing work on external objects never doubting your senses and justly admiring a good job well done. When do you show up?
I have an old, but sharp, draw knife for debarking and a couple of 5 gal. buckets but I would be silly to try and learn what you were taught on my own. How did they do it in the old days?
I'm too old to learn that new trick. But I worked on a piece of land that still had Oak stumps from which they cut the haunches to fit between the ribs and beams. Still think that would be a great business. Thanks for the insight. Mighty Oaks make great ships.
Sounds like a great project, but my November is already over-scheduled and the travel distance a bit much for right now. Never worked with an adze before, but am always interested in adding new knowledge to my current (and admittedly limited) skill set. Wish you the best on both your projects - the barn and your philosophic project.
while this is true, people relate to a statement like, "The natural rights of humans are derived from their innate characteristics and the proof of survival of the fittest." . while the proof statement tends to favor "might makes right," I submit that the United States has improved that proof by its very existence. -- j .
Opposed as accurate statements or as philosophical directions? "Survival of the fittest" and "might makes right" are both observably true. As such, who or what approves of them are moot.
I agree with johnpe that Ayn Rand's works are good examples of a fitness test: In spite of their being socially unacceptable, they have been successful in proliferating.
she exemplified, far above and beyond us, survival of the fittest. as a novelist and philosopher, I have not met her match.
and I did not claim that might makes right. . I claimed that the U.S. has made its own variation on might makes right, implying that the founders went beyond that principle in making this country great. -- j .
Ok...My opposing conscious view, not necessarily with your comment; which has credibility. But...any species, with the cognoscent ability for self rule, with a sub conscious connection to a mind, mutuality to it's species and creates value does have an uninalienable right to live it's life however it chooses so long as it does no harm to others of it's kind...and for those with a sensibility for nature...not cause undo pain and suffering of the life forms it presides over as is necessary for it's survival. Interesting to note; it would seem that is a consequence of how things have been created, (however one thinks that happened) and that is all, viewed in a conscious way, is being referred to by our pagan bicameral (pre-conscious) biblical ancestors.
A: The use inalienable means rights in question can under some circumstances be changed. Had you used unalienable as was used in the Constitution it would have meant they could not be changed under any circumstances.
Asa long as you are talking philosophical theory without relationship to anything else. If however you are here as an objectivist and have thoughts of real application you use the letter u and the old original definition which was in place as late as the 1960's in practical application. For me it's a way of honoring the Constitution and working against the use of the long standing argument 'only' of the left. Therefore having objectivist and practical application and not just a discussion of theory. Other than that very fine point the rest is a great discussion. Well worth following. But accuracy in this case is of somewhat much more importance than pointing out the caliber of a .38 or a .357 is actually .34* something the same as a .380 short of a 9 mm.
The difference there is mere advertising. The difference here is your individual freedom. Such as it is these days.
I am responsible for my own actions since I attained adulthood and accepted responsibility - an adult trait. A state not measured by accident of birth place or birth date nor by social promotions.
I am not responsible for events prior to my birth in general nor prior to attaining adulthood specifically.
I am responsible for my own action or inaction as pertains to events in my time in the context of my time.
I do not judge that which came before except in the context of their time. Nor do I judge events of my own time with prejudice but with post judice and in the context of my own times.
Locke and Rand approached this question in different ways, however both are based their argument in reason (logic, evidence and reality). Note the founding fathers were also clear that natural rights were based in reason. This is the opposite of what many libertarians push today.
Locke's argument is based on the idea that if you were alone (in a state of nature) what actions would you be free to take. Perhaps most importantly you have a property right in yourself. In other words you own yourself. From there almost every substantive right can be easily derived. Slavery is illegal (immoral) because it deprives a person of their ownership in themselves, Murder is illegal because it violates their ownership in themselves. Property rights arise from the fact that you own yourself and therefore you own those things you create. This means that theft and burglary are illegal. Note that both Rand and Locke were clear that that the only right a person gives up to a proper government is the right to retaliatory force. You retain the right to self defense when the danger is clear and present, but not the right to use force to redress a wrong that happened a week ago. A variation on Locke is that no one has a stronger claim (legal – property right) on your life than you do. Thus you have a property right in your life.
Rand approaches the question from a fundamental nature of man. Namely that man is rational and that reason is man’s basic tool of survival. Since man has to think for himself (we do not think collectively), then he has to have the rights necessary to sustain his life (a political/ethical system that promotes death is a contradiction – see Rand’s discussion of the ‘is ought problem’). This means each man most have sovereignty over his own life. “Is man a sovereign individual who owns his person, his mind, his life, his work and its products …” Ayn Rand, Capitalism: The Unknown Ideal, p. 10. Thus we see that Rand gets to the same point as Locke, namely that each man owns himself or has self-sovereignty.
Interestingly Leonard Peikoff and many Objectivists have argued against the idea of self ownership. When the do they are arguing against Rand, Locke, and the founding fathers.
BTW: The opposite of self-ownership is slavery. This may be the easiest way to get the point across in a discussion.
There is a lot more to identifying and validating the nature of rights than applying them equally. See Ayn Rand's "The Objectivist Ethics" and "Man's Rights" in her anthology The Virtue of Selfishness.
Thats a lot simpler than all this epistemological stuff !! Do unto others as you want them to do unto you is a pretty good one too. That leads to individual rights also and to objectivism in the end.
"Do unto others as you want them to do unto you is a pretty good one too." Except if a masochist applies this principle, everyone else is in trouble! :-)
The flaw in the golden rule is that we are all individuals and value many different things. We are not some collective that values everything as one mind. What I may want done unto me could be very very different than what you may want done unto you.
Really how does that tell you what a property right is? How you can enforce a property rights?
How does it tell you what to do if someone steals from you? Or whether you can shoot someone for trespassing on your land or who has the mineral rights?
Collectivism muddles that a bit. Would a poor individual that voted to progressively loot a weathy individual be following or breaking that Golden Rule? What if this poor individual has been taught that being wealthy, or even personal gain, is bad?
The short answer is each living object is necessarily responsible for selecting its course of action for its own survival using the information available in the context of the time. For one living object to be assigned or assume the right to determine what is the best action for another entity is biologically and physically inefficient and impossible. Only politics erected to save god and the church has assumed the right to contradict the nature of living things. Leave us alone and we will be as we evolved, happy and efficient. Deny individual rights and civilization founded on rights breaks down in the fight for the spoils. The state of nature requires that some one show what "the state of nature" is scientifically not as Christian doctrine. That is my point above. Natural is nice . when free.
Does man have free will, and if so how do you know it. How does one separate a fact from a belief? It is a fact of nature that living things operate by choosing their course of action. What a priori analytic belief would you support to contradict that fact? I'll be glad to respond if you make an affirmative proposition that living things do not act on their own interest.
I remember that many formulae in higher mathematics can not be proven by usual means of derivation. The only way to prove them is via "reductio ad absurdum".
Reductio ad absurdum is a process of showing through clear logical steps that if you disagree with the proposition, you will invevitably end up contradicting yourself. Since contradictions cannot exist, then you are automatically wrong to oppose the initial premise. Therefore, the premise is true.
So to prove the individual rights claim, you may do well to demonstrate that anyone opposing these rights is headed into self-contradiction.
What I mean by 'derivative proof' is "We want to prove B. We know A is true, and we know that if A is true, the B must be true. Therefore B is true. Another term is syllogism. The reductio proof is a whole different application of logic.
The fact that man has free will, a volitional cons- ciousness; the fact that he must use his mind in order to survive, and if he is subject to the will of another he cannot exercise this free will and sur- vive; and the fact that, in fact, in literal reality, what really, literally exists are individuals, and not collectives. (As to free will's being debatable, if man cannot exercise his mind to check what to know, he can never know if his ideas are true or false [see Branden in The Objectivist Newsletter]; and if he cannot know anything, someone saying he cannot know cannot know that, either).
Reason and free will, man is a being of volitional consciousness and reason is exercised by choosing to focus and continuing to pay attention to the subject.
In my old dino American opinion, the Constitution of the United States with its reasoning written on paper for all to read is the best example of such proof.
For that, I would recommend reading Leornard Piekoff's book. You may start with a discussion of the nature of reality, metaphysics, and the nature of knowledge, epistemology. only then can you move into discussions on perception, concepts, the validity of the senses, and othe branches of philosophy like ethics and politics. Rights are an ethical and political notion.
Basically, though, if you start with "A is A" and then follow logically with the primacy of existence as a guide, rather than the primacy of consciousness, you'll get there.
If you look to nature for support of individual rights, you may be disappointed. Nature is more concerned with passing down a sequence of genes than with the individual containing them. Even in humans we have built in behaviors (deference to authority, tribe loyalty, etc.) that benefit the genes of the group more than the individual.
Nature isn't "concerned" with anything. It is simply is. "Man's nature" as the basis of rights means the attributes of human beings and our means of survival as based on rational thought. We do not have "built in" behaviors of submission and tribalism.
How does reason, an epistemological concept, fit with genetics which is sub category of the science of biology? Of course science relies on reasoning in its inductive and deductive processes but is DNA reason or is it stored information awaiting a query from a protein. Is Morse code reason or a set of symbols.
Metaphysics + Epistemology leads to the moral question: How do you derive an objective moral code using reason and based on objective reality? Rational selfishness is the basic moral premise of morality or ethics. How does Morality apply to rights. Rights are a moral concept: the application of human reason for mutually beneficial human interaction.
Since the overwhelming majority of successful human interaction is the result of agreements and contracts contract and private property rights are the conditions required for man's proper survival.
Freedom and Political equality is the political expression of equal rights.
Capitalism is the private ownership of the means of production. The purpose of the government in capitalism is the definition and the protection of individual rights; life, liberty, contract and property.
The main moral principle of capitalism is free market equilibrium. The free market is the sum total of all the valid voluntary trade of goods and services in a given geographic location. Free market equilibrium is the best quality product at the lowest price to the most consumers. Free market equilibrium is the product of rational selfishness, free trade and a gold standard stable currency. Charity is private.
Epistemology is the branch of philosophy that studies the means of knowledge. Reason is the basic principle of epistemology. Reason is the human faculty or ability that perceives, identifies and integrates the valid evidence of the senses. The key to understanding human reason is that fact that man is a being of volitional conceptual consciuosness. In order to gain accurate and reliable knowledge of objective reality the individual has to focus his or her mind and identify reality by the use of concepts. Facts or reality are identified by valid concepts that require valid definitions. For example; what is the concept of rights? Rights are the conditions required for man's proper survival. These conditions are freedom, contract and property rights.
Since reality is objective rights can be proven objectively. Objective means based on facts and that which exists. Metaphysics is the branch of philosophy that identifies the nature of reality and the universe.
The Roman philosopher Cicero was the first to make a succinct argument for fundamental rights. His position was that there were innate human actions that could only be prevented by interference from an outside force, and were therefore an inalienable part of our makeup For instance, nothing prevents us physically from saying anything we want, so our speech is inherently "free". All life forms seek to survive, and we have the ability, barring external constraint, to defend ourselves from threat, so the self defense element is also an inherent characteristic. Cicero maintained that these and other human activities are what make us free beings, and therefore should be regarded as "rights", the violation of which degrades our humanity.
Actually, it is a premise that CANNOT be proved, nor is it correct; as in a 'law of nature', nor is the premise even as strong as a 'law of economics'. What it is, it is a supposition that allows men of good conscious to maintain an orderly society; and, in the worst case to prevent lesser men from destroying the society so formed.
Simply put if my 'rights' were truly incapable of being suppressed then I could violate the rights of others with impunity.
What the supposition seeks to impose is the premise that there are 'fundamental' rights that cannot be abridged without causing an inherent state of discontent among the people whose rights are so impinged.
And that returns us to the circular argument that it is as wrong to impose a set of restrictions on another individual, as it is to allow another to impose restrictions upon ourselves! It is in our nature to resist.
ref: Hobbes & Locke...philosophical postings establish the rights you are born with in order to promote rights in a free society vs priviligies granted by govt in a totalitarian society...that which govt grants, govt can take away...in philosophy, it is always...define..or be defined...that is the initial basis to start from...win that battle and you win the position...
Individual rights are derived from the nature of man. Man is the only specie that has no automatic source of knowledge. Animals live by their senses and perceptions alone, Man has "choice".
Since man has to choose which actions to take to ensure his survival he needs the freedom to do so. The protection of that freedom is the proper function of government. Government needs to recognize the nature of man and respect mans right to take whatever action he deems necessary -- save the initiation of force.
The Founding Fathers identified this fact and proclaimed a constitution based on "unalienable rights".
There are a lot of interesting "High Brow" answers here, many I agree with, but I have to point out that you can only exercise such rights if the people in large allow it. As such, 98% of people would neither understand or care about the logical arguments of the type presented here.
I know objectivist are not going to like this but as far as I can tell, about the only argument you could get a large percentage of people to agree with is that these rights are granted from God. Those that believe that understand that these rights can not be infringed by man or government. Take away a belief in God and the majority of people do not care about logical arguments. If a large number of people feel like infringing on your rights they will do so with no guilt at all.
So, as much as objectivist may hate it, I believe the exercise of their most sacred rights are dependent upon the deity they generally do not believe in.
There is none unless you agree that at a fundamental level, all people share a commonality of opportunity granted by their ability (but not level of ability) to perceive reality and act. And following that, you have to agree that all share a commonality of priority - that no one is inherently granted superior claim to reality over another, i.e., that no single person (or group) has the inherent natural ability to overrule or inherently prevent the actions of another.
Once we establish that everyone has the claim to independently perceive reality and act, then comes the application of cause and effect, i.e. the application of justice. Justice dictates that reality isn't subject to whim - its laws exist independent of the actions of agents who may choose courses of action which either adhere to the principles of reality or not. Justice dictates certain reactions to go with certain actions. Rights then are derived from the application of these "just" reactions which are calculated to adhere to the laws of reality and promote the pursuance of acts conforming to the laws of reality.
Reason only comes after perception and goal evaluation, however. Reason is the ability to first recognize one's current situation - ie position relative to but separate and distinct from other parts of reality, an identification of what could exist at a future time, and finally the ability and willingness to act on that accord.
I would also point out that cause and effect are independent of our perception of them. The orbits of the planets and revolutions were active long before we ever recognized such or came to understand the principles of astral physics. They operate according to the laws of reality and exist independent of man's reasoning on the matter. We can use reason to understand the principles by which reality operates, but we did not will them into existence nor can we alter them. Reason is a tool of understanding what exists - it isn't a source for derivation of reality or its operations, so I must disagree with you.
As a rep of NBI I read the monthly installments of IOE as they came out in the 60's and discussed science with Miss Rand. So be assured you offered no useful insights or advice.
I also had the opportunity to be present for all of Dr. Peikoff's lectures on the writing of OPAR and his concern over the problem of sequence of the derivation of existence, identity, and consciousness which he changed from Miss Rand's sequence. He explained it using the information on observation of his daughter Kira's sequence of acquiring concepts. He explained that the sequence in which one grasps concpets is different from their logical sequence. You may want to reflect on what is a "logical sequence" if it is not deduction. The reason is the problem of getting from an axiom to an empirical statement. The "trick" is in the empirical basis of concepts. If you have read Binswanger, "How We Know" which I read in draft with Harry you know that he contends "consciousness" is an axiom and axioms cannot be defined as they have no genus. So getting from an axiom to an empirical statement about the particular of something is impossible. If I say existence exists and existence is identity those are true by the definition of axioms but cannot be used to differentiated particulars as they apply to all particulars. If you understand why in OPAR Peikoff states metaphysics and epistemology are empirical you will begin to understand the nature of concepts. Remember Miss Rand used "consciousness" only as a term denoting man's consciousness not an abstract platonic universal or axiom. Good luck thinking by deduction about axioms.
"There is something of which I am aware" is not a random linguistic construct, but is formed from derivative concepts denoting something concrete (i.e. there is the pressure of the keys on the keyboard which I feel with my finger tips, there is the glow of the backlighting on the monitor which blurs my sight when I shift my gaze, etc.). Can we imagine a world in which it can be proven that existence does not exist? No. Even dark matter has a name, even if it lacks a well defined identity (i.e. the substance which has mass but does not have other properties which matter has).
I do not think that because existence exists could be a proposal about an infinite number of existents that it means that existence exists actually is a claim about an infinite number of existents. Actual existents are always finite in number. It seems strange therefore to say that a priori knowledge is required to conceive of a posteriori knowledge. That seems to be necessary only when we define the universe as something infinite, rather than finite.
One is first aware that it is, then that it is something particular, then that you are observing it. This is developmental science not philosophy. Please think through the difference between an infinite set of numbers and all possible numbers. Axioms are not about an infinite set of properties but all encompassing of the universe regardless of the number of particulars. The set of infinite numbers is smaller than the set of all numbers. Thus axioms have a special status from which no particular can be derived.
If you have concepts of particulars then you have conscious awareness of them and can deduce propositions from their properties forming vast numbers of sets to see if they can be classified by similarities with measurement omission into concepts but you cannot do this with axioms. A priori knowledge about something does not exist. Axioms are self evident necessary statements entailed in all statements.
I have to admit I cannot understand the first two sentences of your third paragraph. A posteriori statements come after the observation and make knowledge possible.
As I like to say never give up your posterior.
Anyway Bro, I've got your back.
If consciousness is not an axiom, then it does seem to follow that no particular can be derived from axioms. Does that mean consciousness would be given epistemological and not metaphysical status?
Then again, not sure that developmental science can explain the order of existence, identity, consciousness. These three seem bound together, and to operate under the control of a volitional process.
Here are reasons I think the three axioms are bound up in each other. To separate existence from identity is to allow something to be A and not A at the same time. To separate existence from consciousness is to allow for a consciousness without percepts or concepts. To separate consciousness from identity is to allow for consciousness precedes existence.
I think it's difficult when we say consciousness is volitional. How can an axiom be volitional? But I think that is why the Peikoff states that a person must choose to think or to evade. He says, it seems, that there is no alternative to choice. Is consciousness equivalent to thinking? Again, I'm unclear. It would seem consciousness denotes awareness. But awareness seems to be volitional...
Separately: With regard to the first two sentences from the third paragraph of the previous post, what I meant to say was that if existence is taken to mean all existents, then existence cannot be infinite because the number of existents is never infinite.
What I am really curious about is whether the continuum hypothesis is compatible with the assumption that existence is finite. I think so, because each time we subdivide an atom, it yields some number of smaller particles (i.e. puffs of meta energy).
Also don't worry about existence is finite. You need to rethink your definition of finite and existence. There are no units to existence because it is all.
Keep thinking you are on your way.
"The argument is simple: analytical and a priori true statements cannot be contradicted by synthetic facts. If a statement cannot be contradicted by facts it cannot be meaningful. If it cannot have meaning it is nonsense. Nonsense does not belong in philosophy."
Is three less than four? Yes. Is three greater than two? Yes, again. Is three therefore the number that is less than four and greater than two? No. It is the integer between two and four. But does a child have to know the concept of integer to grasp that three is less than four and greater than two? No. It is enough to refer to them as numbers to still retain the meaning of the concept.
' means prior to observation, knowledge prior to been seen hence God and other chimera.
rights of humans are derived from their innate characteristics
and the proof of survival of the fittest." . while the proof statement
tends to favor "might makes right," I submit that the United States
has improved that proof by its very existence. -- j
.
I agree with johnpe that Ayn Rand's works are good examples of a fitness test: In spite of their being socially unacceptable, they have been successful in proliferating.
Jan
as a novelist and philosopher, I have not met her match.
and I did not claim that might makes right. . I claimed that
the U.S. has made its own variation on might makes right,
implying that the founders went beyond that principle
in making this country great. -- j
.
But...any species, with the cognoscent ability for self rule, with a sub conscious connection to a mind, mutuality to it's species and creates value does have an uninalienable right to live it's life however it chooses so long as it does no harm to others of it's kind...and for those with a sensibility for nature...not cause undo pain and suffering of the life forms it presides over as is necessary for it's survival.
Interesting to note; it would seem that is a consequence of how things have been created, (however one thinks that happened) and that is all, viewed in a conscious way, is being referred to by our pagan bicameral (pre-conscious) biblical ancestors.
B: Or it meant you used a PC dictionary
C: Or you can't spell.
D: Or you weren't referring to the Constitution.
A B C D. But A is A.
The difference there is mere advertising. The difference here is your individual freedom. Such as it is these days.
Thank you.
This is my rifle.
This is my gun
This one's for fighting
This one's for .....
Unless it's an artillery piece.
I own myself.
I am responsible for the consequences of my own choice of actions.
...and work forward.
I am a thinking reasoning individual.
I am responsible for my own actions since I attained adulthood and accepted responsibility - an adult trait. A state not measured by accident of birth place or birth date nor by social promotions.
I am not responsible for events prior to my birth in general nor prior to attaining adulthood specifically.
I am responsible for my own action or inaction as pertains to events in my time in the context of my time.
I do not judge that which came before except in the context of their time. Nor do I judge events of my own time with prejudice but with post judice and in the context of my own times.
Such as they are.
Locke's argument is based on the idea that if you were alone (in a state of nature) what actions would you be free to take. Perhaps most importantly you have a property right in yourself. In other words you own yourself. From there almost every substantive right can be easily derived. Slavery is illegal (immoral) because it deprives a person of their ownership in themselves, Murder is illegal because it violates their ownership in themselves. Property rights arise from the fact that you own yourself and therefore you own those things you create. This means that theft and burglary are illegal.
Note that both Rand and Locke were clear that that the only right a person gives up to a proper government is the right to retaliatory force. You retain the right to self defense when the danger is clear and present, but not the right to use force to redress a wrong that happened a week ago.
A variation on Locke is that no one has a stronger claim (legal – property right) on your life than you do. Thus you have a property right in your life.
Rand approaches the question from a fundamental nature of man. Namely that man is rational and that reason is man’s basic tool of survival. Since man has to think for himself (we do not think collectively), then he has to have the rights necessary to sustain his life (a political/ethical system that promotes death is a contradiction – see Rand’s discussion of the ‘is ought problem’). This means each man most have sovereignty over his own life. “Is man a sovereign individual who owns his person, his mind, his life, his work and its products …” Ayn Rand, Capitalism: The Unknown Ideal, p. 10. Thus we see that Rand gets to the same point as Locke, namely that each man owns himself or has self-sovereignty.
Interestingly Leonard Peikoff and many Objectivists have argued against the idea of self ownership. When the do they are arguing against Rand, Locke, and the founding fathers.
BTW: The opposite of self-ownership is slavery. This may be the easiest way to get the point across in a discussion.
How does it tell you what to do if someone steals from you? Or whether you can shoot someone for trespassing on your land or who has the mineral rights?
The state of nature requires that some one show what "the state of nature" is scientifically not as Christian doctrine. That is my point above. Natural is nice . when free.
Reductio ad absurdum is a process of showing through clear logical steps that if you disagree with the proposition, you will invevitably end up contradicting yourself. Since contradictions cannot exist, then you are automatically wrong to oppose the initial premise. Therefore, the premise is true.
So to prove the individual rights claim, you may do well to demonstrate that anyone opposing these rights is headed into self-contradiction.
ciousness; the fact that he must use his mind in
order to survive, and if he is subject to the will of
another he cannot exercise this free will and sur-
vive; and the fact that, in fact, in literal reality, what really, literally exists are individuals, and not
collectives. (As to free will's being debatable,
if man cannot exercise his mind to check what
to know, he can never know if his ideas are
true or false [see Branden in The Objectivist
Newsletter]; and if he cannot know anything,
someone saying he cannot know cannot know
that, either).
Basically, though, if you start with "A is A" and then follow logically with the primacy of existence as a guide, rather than the primacy of consciousness, you'll get there.
The proof is that A is A.
Since the overwhelming majority of successful human interaction is the result of agreements and contracts contract and private property rights are the conditions required for man's proper survival.
Freedom and Political equality is the political expression of equal rights.
Capitalism is the private ownership of the means of production. The purpose of the government in capitalism is the definition and the protection of individual rights; life, liberty, contract and property.
The main moral principle of capitalism is free market equilibrium. The free market is the sum total of all the valid voluntary trade of goods and services in a given geographic location. Free market equilibrium is the best quality product at the lowest price to the most consumers. Free market equilibrium is the product of rational selfishness, free trade and a gold standard stable currency. Charity is private.
Simply put if my 'rights' were truly incapable of being suppressed then I could violate the rights of others with impunity.
What the supposition seeks to impose is the premise that there are 'fundamental' rights that cannot be abridged without causing an inherent state of discontent among the people whose rights are so impinged.
And that returns us to the circular argument that it is as wrong to impose a set of restrictions on another individual, as it is to allow another to impose restrictions upon ourselves! It is in our nature to resist.
Since man has to choose which actions to take to ensure his survival he needs the freedom to do so. The protection of that freedom is the proper function of government. Government needs to recognize the nature of man and respect mans right to take whatever action he deems necessary -- save the initiation of force.
The Founding Fathers identified this fact and proclaimed a constitution based on "unalienable rights".
Ayn Rand's Philosophy -- In a Nutshell - PaulNathan.biz
I know objectivist are not going to like this but as far as I can tell, about the only argument you could get a large percentage of people to agree with is that these rights are granted from God. Those that believe that understand that these rights can not be infringed by man or government. Take away a belief in God and the majority of people do not care about logical arguments. If a large number of people feel like infringing on your rights they will do so with no guilt at all.
So, as much as objectivist may hate it, I believe the exercise of their most sacred rights are dependent upon the deity they generally do not believe in.
Once we establish that everyone has the claim to independently perceive reality and act, then comes the application of cause and effect, i.e. the application of justice. Justice dictates that reality isn't subject to whim - its laws exist independent of the actions of agents who may choose courses of action which either adhere to the principles of reality or not. Justice dictates certain reactions to go with certain actions. Rights then are derived from the application of these "just" reactions which are calculated to adhere to the laws of reality and promote the pursuance of acts conforming to the laws of reality.
I would also point out that cause and effect are independent of our perception of them. The orbits of the planets and revolutions were active long before we ever recognized such or came to understand the principles of astral physics. They operate according to the laws of reality and exist independent of man's reasoning on the matter. We can use reason to understand the principles by which reality operates, but we did not will them into existence nor can we alter them. Reason is a tool of understanding what exists - it isn't a source for derivation of reality or its operations, so I must disagree with you.