what is the single purpose of government? Single word answers please

Posted by edweaver 9 years, 9 months ago to Politics
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To me there is 1 single word that best describes the purpose of government at any level. Who can name it?


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  • Posted by Robbie53024 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    I think that GW deserves more than "high regard." Someone who has such greatness levied upon them and willingly walks away is truly an example of humbleness.
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  • Posted by Robbie53024 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    No. There is no "fair market price" other than that established by the seller. If the buyer (even the gov't) isn't willing to pay that price, then it is the property of the seller. Only the seller gets to establish the price. "Fair market" or not.
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  • Posted by barwick11 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    That was my answer. It's defense, but I think protect is more accurate than defense, or defend. Latin, Tueor, we should use it more often...
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  • Posted by Kittyhawk 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    Ranter, governments exist all over the world today, and have throughout history. The question didn't specify the American government, or the ideal government, so I think we need a one-word answer that applies to all governments. I agree with Solver: control. Government gives one group of people control over another group of people. Nazi Germany had a government and I don''t think anyone would argue its purpose was protection of rights.

    It's a very interesting question, and that's my two cents' worth.
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  • Posted by Solver 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    If property is targeted to be forcefully taken without the owner's consent, then that property would be fairly worthless to the "fair-market." Force typically gets a bargain.
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  • Posted by Ranter 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    Upon the surrender of Lord Cornwallis, the Continental Army proposed to name George Washington king. He declined. For that and his decision not to seek a third term, I, too, have very high regard for him.
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  • Posted by Solver 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    I considered “Ownership” but big government already thinks it owns everything and it is just those free-thinking individuals out there that don't agree, thus “Control" is their higher purpose "for the greater good."
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  • Posted by Ranter 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    I see the problem, and I tend to agree with you; but the principle of eminent domain is established law under all governments and is enshrined in our Constitution. We can't get away from it. All governments have the power to seize property provided they pay fair market value, which is what an owner willing to sell and a buyer willing to buy would agree for the property in question under the market conditions at the time. The key to this is "willing." Even if the owner is not willing to sell, he must sell at the price he would receive under market conditions at the time if he were willing to sell.
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  • Posted by conscious1978 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    If we set aside the improper purposes of government, I think we would try to come up with the concept that best describes the proper purpose of government. What primary concept subsumes most of the other purposes of government?
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  • Posted by Robbie53024 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    But you see the problem with that whole scenario is that the only one who gets to decide what is "market value" is the owner. All others are moochers or looters of one sort or another. Just look at the instances of eminent domain being exercised against the wishes of the original owner, just to have the property seized lay dormant.
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  • Posted by Solver 9 years, 9 months ago
    Loot!

    And it is up to producers to thwart them.
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  • Posted by Ranter 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    No, whatever "they" decide is full market value is subject to challenge, and ultimately, by trial in court with experts presenting property valuations in support of each side. Ultimately the jury or the judge decides the value, if it is contested, depending on whether it is a jury trial or a bench trial.
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  • Posted by IndianaGary 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    Correct. Without property rights there are no other rights. Without property rights you don't own yourself or any of the things your mind creates. Without property rights there is only slavery.
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  • Posted by m082844 9 years, 9 months ago
    Self-defense

    They are my self-defense against the violation of my rights.
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  • Posted by Ranter 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    True -- but in the original Constitution, there were no term limits on the Presidency, so a President could serve as long as he could keep winning elections.
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  • Posted by Ranter 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    This list in the Constitution of the powers of the President is more extensive than the powers possessed at the time by King George, who was by that time a Constitutional Monarch, with most of the powers held by the Parliament. The King could appoint a commander in chief for the King's Army but was no longer allowed to command it himself. The King could not legislate by decree. The King appointed the Cabinet, which actually governed, but subject to the approval of Parliament. The King could not order taxes. The "taxation without representation" complaint made by the colonists was actually against Parliament, not the King. The King appointed the governors of each of the colonies, but, again, subject to the approval of parliament. The President has the power of prosecution for violation of laws in the US. King George did not have that power -- that power was held by Parliament, which governed the court system. In the English system, Parliament had the power to depose a king, and even to execute a king, as it did to King Charles I. The President can be removed by the impeachment process, but is not subject to execution orders from the Congress.


    While it is true that the Constitution limits government power, it limits it to the powers it grants to the government. There was -- and is -- no such limitation in the British system.
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  • Posted by CarolSeer2014 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    Well, strictly speaking, any one word would beg an explanation. But kudos for trying.
    Aristotle differentiated between the "object" and the means of obtaining that "object". Could be we need to explore the logic of that.
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  • Posted by CarolSeer2014 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    I have friends in the UK who were surprised that I was historically educated enough to understand the Magna Carta and its contribution to limited powers of government. I replied that it's our history too!
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  • Posted by Solver 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    The game here is to find a single word that best describes the purpose of government at any level.
    So as I see it, there is:
    purpose of government as it is.
    purpose of government as it should be.
    So at least two people with the best answers can win this game.
    (Funny thing is that the two best answers are at opposite ends)
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  • Posted by 9 years, 9 months ago in reply to this comment.
    That would surprise me given that the Constitution was a limit on the governments power, not a granting of power. Share the proof please.
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