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  • Posted by Snoogoo 10 years ago
    Any business owner has a right to refuse service to anyone, remember "No shirt no shoes no service"? This applies both ways. You might hurt someone's feelings but in the end it is violating a business owner's individual rights to force them to serve everyone. It is illogical to not serve someone due to some arbitrary trait like skin color or gender, but people do stupid things like that and they have that right. The customer has a choice as to where they procure services, so being denied for service one place does not automatically mean they will not be able to get the service in the next place they go to, so how does being refused service violate their rights. See the article posted here regarding Milton Freedman and he explains the point rather well.
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  • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago in reply to this comment.
    So by this you contend that homosexuality is a evolutionary process or do you contend that the existence of homosexuals are the equivalent of "mules"? Unable to reproduce, they are a failed experiment along the evolutionary path?

    Can you point to the "gene pair" that is identified with homosexuality? If so can you now advise us why the pair crops up and has not been weeded out of the genome as genetics demands a non productive mutant strain must be? There are records of homosexual acts going back as far as written history, yet if it's truly genetic in nature and not simply a case of animalistic lust or desire as I contend, why hasn't the evolutionary process produce ONE case of a homosexual union producing offspring - even a failed reproductive function?

    Because maph it cannot. No matter how many hundreds of links to homosexual propaganda websites you produce the one bit of incontrovertible proof you cannot produce is a living child.

    Therefore the ONLY conclusion that can be drawn is that homosexuality is at most the ardent affection and/or sexual union between members of the same sex. It is simply lust and desire, not biology. Not genetics. Lust and desire for members of the same sex.

    sorry.
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    • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
      Homosexuals are not infertile. Many gay and lesbian couples can and do have children. They may not be able to reproduce with each other, but that doesn't mean they can't reproduce. As for a specific gene pair, a quick google search turned up this article:

      International Business Times - Does A ‘Gay Gene’ Exist? New Study Says ‘Xq28’ May Influence Male Sexual Orientation:
      http://www.ibtimes.com/does-gay-gene-exi...

      According to this article, homosexuality in men is partially caused by a particular gene in a specific region of the X chromosome known as Xq28, inherited from the mother. So yeah, your arguments against a genetic cause are not looking very substantial...

      Also, I would argue that animalistic lust and desire have their roots in biology as well. Breeding is a basic animal instinct, and instincts come from biology.
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      • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago
        About the link you offered. It has not been peer reviewed. In fact NONE of the "studies" that have over the years claimed to have discovered a "gay gene" have never stood up to review. And I'm pretty certain a study produced by a homosexual group, using subjects selected from the immediate community, all subjects, "researchers" and most likely the secretary who typed it were "subjects" - it will never stand scrutiny.
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      • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago
        Exactly what I was saying. They cannot reproduce with themselves, but they can with members of the opposite sex. That IS exactly the case for there being no genetic base for homosexuality. None at all.

        If they could not reproduce with members of the opposite sex, then you might make a point that there was a shift being made in the genome to the end that a homosexual union would produce offspring. But that's not the case. There are just two sexes, male and female.

        That leaves a medical cause - which both you and I reject, OR the conclusion I have came to - lust, desire, however you want to label it today, it's still a lifestyle, a choice, not as you are maintaining, a "immutable biological fact" - it's not.

        A business owner forced to provide a service to a customer that violates the business owners religious stand is a violation of the business owners civil rights. There is no obligation to enslave a business owner in order that the customer not be inconvenienced or embarrassed.
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        • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
          Your argument is illogical. You're basically saying that if there is no possibility for gay and lesbian people to reproduce with each other, then it's impossible for same-sex attractions to be controlled by genetics. However, that doesn't withstand logical scrutiny. There is absolutely nothing in biology that would prevent an individual from being attracted to someone they are incapable of reproducing with. All that's happening really is that the genes which control sexual orientation sometimes get flipped. That's all. The fact that same-sex reproduction is impossible does not support the claim that inversion of a genetic trait is impossible, because it's not.

          And could you please clarify what you mean by "medical cause"?
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          • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago
            This is a pipe dream. We were not talking about attraction. YOU bring genetics into the discussion and then dodge when it's pointed out the homosexual paring cannot be supported by genetics. So now you hold that the "attraction" is genetic based - which can't be scientifically quantified. Admit it, my conclusion is the only viable and provable conclusion. Lust and desire, a choice, a lifestyle. And no court except the most liberal would allow you to infringe on a business owner who disagrees with your lifestyle.
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            • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
              Okay, let me see if I understand your question correctly. Basically what you're asking is that if sexual orientation is controlled by genetics, then how can two heterosexual parents produce homosexual offspring? Wouldn't the offspring have to have the same genetics as the parents? The answer is yes, but you're forgetting about dominant and recessive genes. That is, someone can be a carrier for a gene without it necessarily being active in them, but it may become active in their children or grandchildren.

              There's also theories about epigenetics, which you can read about here:

              Business Insider - NEW THEORY: The Gay Trait Is Passed Down From Parent To Child:
              http://www.businessinsider.com/evolution...
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  • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
    Of course not. I believe I've clearly stated in previous discussions that there is absolutely nothing wrong with throwing customers out for bad conduct. It's only immutable characteristics with a basis in biology that should be protected. Seriously, civil rights issues are not that difficult to understand...
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    • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago
      Prove that biology point. Not reams of propaganda, biological tests. There really is only one. Can the union result in conception and reproduction.

      Failing that test as a pass - the only biology test that evolution recognizes - it's not biology, it's desire and lust.

      So - Prove it.
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      • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
        Are you trying to say that the fact that same-sex couples cannot reproduce with each other somehow proves that homosexuality is not controlled by biology? That's a pretty ridiculous claim...
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        • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago
          Do you believe in evolution? If so, you MUST acknowledge that the ability to reproduce is fundamental in the evolution of mankind. You must also acknowledge the along the way to present day man, some genetic factors creeped in that did not allow those who carried those genes to reproduce, or if they did manage a birth to term, it was so malformed that it died soon after birth. This is basic biology.

          So now we have people who claim that they are men in a womans body who lust after another woman. And you want us to accept that as being "how they were born". You also deny that the is a homosexual gene, only because if there was one a treatment might be found. You say it's not a medical condition that could be cured. I think I've fairly represented your viewpoint.

          Prepare to be shocked my friend - I agree with everything I asked you to confirm. I do not believe that there's a homosexual gene, because there would be some mutation form of a birth possible if there was, and there can never be a birth that arose from a homosexual paring.

          I do not believe it is the result of a medical condition that can be treated and cured with medicine because there are no clinical aberrations found in people claiming to be homosexuals.

          I also do not believe that homosexuality is the result of evolution. In part because there have been people around who engaged in homosexual sex acts for millennia and they still cannot reproduce themselves. HOWEVER when they engage in a sexual act with a member of the opposite sex they have been found to be able to give birth and to cause a full term pregnancy. Ask a genetics professor if a member of a mutant strain of one animal can cause a pregnancy in a member of a divergent strain? I'll tell what he will tell you - no, that's not possible. Man is said to have evolved from monkey's, can they breed together? Dogs are domesticated wolves, but while some may claim to have successfully crossbred them, the genetic markers are all wolf. Coyotes are another animal from that same branch the has separated itself far enough to now have lost the ability to crossbreed successfully with a dog. They are seen as a distinct animal from the common dog or wolf.

          How about fish? Can you breed a tuna egg with a catfish sperm and get another creature that's not either tuna or catfish? Nope.

          How about a horse and the zebra? Again the answer is no. I don't even know that they would try to mate, but another African animal, the Arabian horse and the American quarter horse? Yes they can and the result is a butt ugly horse that can run forever and can corner pretty good - but it's not half the horse it's linage predicted it might be.

          So now back to our couple, the same sex couple of humans. It's not evolution, because if it was it's been around long enough that the individuals involved would not be able to reproduce with a member of the opposite sex - barring individual medical problems, this is not the problem, they ARE fertile. It's not biology because if it were a medical condition those involved would be looking for the magic cure, but you assure me there is none.

          What are we left with? How about it is the oldest of reproductive drives - lust. It's the same drive that made most high school Senior boys chase after the home coming queen - lust, desire, passion, whatever you want to label it as, EXCEPT you are telling me that those engaging in it want to do it so much that it's the same issue as a black man being black, the same as a Japanese person in a all white community? NO! All those have been given protected status because they were born with this attribute in their physical being.

          You say that homosexuals are born that way. In order to meet that test, they must be able to reproduce themselves AND to produce another homosexual. A black person mating with a black person gets a black person. A Mexican mating with a Mexican will give birth to a Mexican child.

          Now prove you can rise to the test, otherwise you are just being a thug and a bully ordering a business owner be be your slave when he does not want to serve you based no your lust and desire.
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          • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
            I don't deny that there is a homosexual gene. Quite the opposite, I firmly believe the scientific evidence shows that the so-called "gay gene" is absolutely real. Whether it's the sole cause, or if there are other factors which contribute to homosexuality as well is an area of research which, as of yet, is still inconclusive.

            But regardless, you've clearly demonstrated that you don't understand how genetics, biology, and evolution work. Roughly 95% of men are sexually attracted to women, and 95% of women are sexually attracted to men. That indicates that sexual orientation is absolutely controlled by biology, otherwise you would never get so clean a division. And if it's controlled by biology, then it must be subject to mutation and deviation, just like every other aspect of biology. Your claim that it would have to provide a course for same-sex reproduction is a baseless assumption. That's not how genetics or evolution work. Genetic mutation is purely random. It does not have to structure itself in a way that is always perfectly consistent, or that always allows for reproduction, and there is no logical reason to assume that it would need to work like that. Many people are absolutely born with genetic conditions that prevent them from reproducing. By your logic, it would be impossible for anyone to be born with such a condition, but we know that isn't the case. Genetic mutation does NOT require that every single individual organism be born with the ability to reproduce, and your insistence that it does reveals your ignorance. Also, you're ignoring the possibility that people can be carries of a recessive gene, but have a dominate gene which overrides it.

            And actually yes, there HAVE been differences scientifically observed in people born with same-sex attractions and gender identity issues. The fact that you haven't researched the topic and aren't aware of those differences doesn't mean they don't exist, it simply means you're not educated on the issue. If you want to approach this topic from an informed and knowledgeable position, then here's a video from Stanford University that talks about human sexual behavior, including homosexuality and transsexuality.

            Stanford University - Human Sexual Behavior I:
            https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LOY3QH_j...

            Homosexuality discussed from 1:13:27 to 1:23:50.
            Transsexuality discussed from 1:23:55 to 1:29:45.
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            • Posted by 10 years ago
              If it cannot result in offspring, it is ipso facto a non-viable mutation. Only a mutation that enhances the ability of the species to propagate is viable and "natural." Others (those that truly are mutations) will soon die off as they cannot reproduce themselves, or if they can and are less survivable, will survive at a lower rate and eventually die off. That, my friend, is basic evolution.
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            • Posted by livefreely 10 years ago
              If 5% of people are prone to any other behavior or response does that mean they are biologically prone? I don't think you gave any real scientific information. I can make a video. What difference does it make? If you like vinyl you like vinyl are you trying to justify your feelings on this subject because you have determined your self worth on what you heard from others? Don't do that.
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            • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago
              and over in the other thread you say there is a gay gene.

              You are either, completely schizophrenic or as I've said all along a bored teenager trolling among adults. In either case, I've proved you wrong in whichever mind you are using and now that you've blocked yourself into a very tight corner and been proved to be wrong, I'm out. Go play with somebody else.
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    • Posted by LetsShrug 10 years ago
      But what if this lady is a lesbian... she could come back and sue and say that's why she was kicked out....not because she was screaming in the phone.. these things have happened before.
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      • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
        If the business has proof to the contrary (which they did in this case), then the woman would not be taken seriously, and her case would be rightfully dismissed.
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        • Posted by LetsShrug 10 years ago
          At who's expense??? Proving to the contrary... what a waste!. Much like the government, you make things complicated and expensive and it robs businesses of freedom and resources. Business owners have the right to deny service at any time for any reason...their success or failure is their own (not the customers')... it's no different than their home.. they own it, they rule it. Get out of my kitchen!
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          • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
            Unfortunately, it's not possible to eliminate frivolous lawsuits without eliminating lawsuits entirely. But if you were to eliminate the ability for citizens to file lawsuits for anything at all, that would cause a whole host of other problems where people would have no ability to seek a redress of grievances, even in legitimate cases. You have to take the good with the bad.

            Oh, and no, commercial property is very different from residential property. One is your personal space, and the other is open to the public, so naturally the regulations for each are going to be different from each other.
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            • Posted by 10 years ago
              Not at all - ever see a sign "No shirt, no shoes, no service?" Why should that proprietor get to establish criterion and another is not allowed to establish their own criterion?
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              • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
                Because that criteria is not an immutable characteristic controlled by biology. There's nothing wrong with having clothing requirements, because anyone can put on clothing. However, there IS something wrong with having genetic requirements, because people cannot change their genetics.
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                • Posted by Rozar 10 years ago
                  Amputees can't put clothes on. Just saying.
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                  • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
                    That depends on what was amputated. A man who had no legs but perfectly good arms wouldn't have any problem putting on clothing. Even a man with only one arm is able to dress himself, though admitadly with somewhat greater difficulty. If you're talking about a quadriplegic, I think they usually have a spouse or family member to help them. I don't know. I've never known a quadriplegic, so I wouldn't know how they get dressed.

                    But regardless, whether they dress themselves or have someone else dress them, they can still wear clothing. That guy Nick Vujicic certainly doesn't go around naked everywhere, does he?
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            • Posted by LetsShrug 10 years ago
              No difference. The owner is the owner. It may be open to the public but that's to make a profit... not for forced interactions. As for frivolous law suits. If the plaintiff loses they should pay all legal costs. That would stop it mostly. Speaking of lawyers...should they too be forced to represent whatever schmuck who's willing to pay that walks thru their business entrance?
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              • Posted by CircuitGuy 10 years ago
                That's complicated b/c sometimes both sides are suing each other and the court may rule a partial settlement either way. Or the court may rule one side is totally right. They can also make one side pay all the legal costs.

                At least that's how it works in a case I'm party to at the moment.
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                Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
                When a business is open to the general public, the business owner agrees to submit themselves to certain regulations, which include interacting with any and all customers who walk through the door. It's part of the social contract. Lawyers are a bit different because the service they provide isn't just a quick sale of a product, but an extended interaction which can potentially last several months. Besides, you don't want to have someone defending you when they don't already agree with your case, anyway.

                And I don't think having the losing side of a court battle always pay the legal costs would necessarily be a good idea. There is already a legal procedure through which that can be done, but it has to be specifically applied for, and the judge has to approve it. Making it happen automatically in every case would cause very big problems.
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                • Posted by 10 years ago
                  Where is the "social contract" of which you speak? I never signed it.

                  I own myself. I own the fruits of my mind and my labor. I am free to exchange or not to exchange with whomever I please. Since any business that I own (my property) is the fruit of my labor, and since I can exchange with whomever I please, or choose not to exchange with whomever I please, ipso facto, I have the right to refuse anyone service/goods in my place of business (except for certain protected classes of persons whom some unelected panel of judges has dictated that I must).
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                • Posted by CircuitGuy 10 years ago
                  Regarding the question of lawyers being forced to represent people, this can happen. My wife's office has started probates, the estate became insolvent, and she had to finish the project knowing she would only get partial payment. That's just part of the price of being an attorney in WI. It doesn't happen often, and it has been been a big problem for the office.
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                  • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
                    I'm not a legal expert, so I don't quite follow what you just said. Could you explain that without using lawyer terminology, please?
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                    • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago
                      The court (judge) required the probate to be finished, even though the estate was $0.00 value and therefore there was no money in the estate to pay the lawyer. The lawyer became a slave to their job.
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                • Posted by Rozar 10 years ago
                  So what if the business doesn't open to the general public? What if they open to a specific community?
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                  • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
                    That doesn't even make sense. How do you open to a specific community? Do you mean target a particular demographic? Is that what you're asking? If so, there's nothing wrong with targeting certain demographics – in fact, doing so is necessary to achieve the highest possible sales. You just can't stop people who are outside the intended demographic from purchasing your product if they have the money.
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                • Posted by LetsShrug 10 years ago
                  The business owner agrees to submit himself to interacting with any and all? There's a "social contract"? Really? In that case EVERY business should close up. THAT IS NOT FREEDOM, MAPH!
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                  • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
                    Why should business owners close up shop? I never said that.
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                    • Posted by LetsShrug 10 years ago
                      If what you said is true then they should. If they can't run their business the way they see fit then it's time to shut down. You seem to not realize that a person's business IS their life, maph. There is no separation... And it's their decisions that make it sink or swim. Next you'll say that directive 10-289 is a good idea because they have to serve the public and they should be forced to stay open Please maph, WAKE UP. Either you are for freedom or you aren't. Force is tyranny.
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                      • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago
                        That's not business, it's slavery.

                        Maph, if you had a printing company that specialized in printing atheistic magazines and pamphlets and I rolled in and asked you to print Christian pamphlets and bibles AND demanded that every word be cross checked with a text I gave you (King James Bible) are you saying you'd just go fire up the presses?
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                        • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
                          What kind of printing company specializes in printing only certain kinds of material? If I ran a printing company, it would be a generic, all purpose printing company like Kinko's that doesn't specialize in anything except printing.

                          And I would have no problem whatsoever with printing religious material, if that's what a customer wanted. :P
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                          • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago
                            You really are not very experienced and know nothing of the world of business. Yes, most companies DO specialize. So switch to business to a company that builds customized hot rods that are ONLY red in color. I roll in and ask for an energy efficient, battery powered car that is baby blue.

                            Now tell me how you respond. Remember, you are a public business and must accept any customer - right?
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                            • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
                              I never said business have to accept all jobs, but merely that they cannot turn customers away because of genetic characteristics of the customer. Honestly, I don't see what's so difficult to understand about that.

                              If a custom auto shop specializes in making a certain kind of car, it's understandable that they probably wouldn't be the best place to go if you wanted something else.

                              To go with your example, all I'm saying is that an auto shop like the one you described would not be able to turn away black people who wanted red hot rods. Business can control what they make, but not who buys it.
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                      • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
                        Haha, no, I'm just saying that Ayn Rand was wrong about her claim that we need a total absence of regulation. Obviously total government control of production wouldn't be good, but anarchy wouldn't be good, either. As Aristotle said, "The ideal lies at the mean between the extremes of excess and deficiency."

                        Also, a government must use force on occasion, otherwise it wouldn't be able to preform its essential functions. A different definition of tyranny is needed.
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                        • Posted by $ winterwind 10 years ago
                          EXCUSE ME? You're chopping away at the very roots of freedom. I would love to see an example of what you mean my "government must use force on occasion..." to perform its essential functions.
                          I know I'm not going to get what I'm asking for, but I can still ask.
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                        • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago
                          So force used against people you don't agree with is good, but force used against groups you do agree with is bad??

                          Ordering a business owner to violate his religious tenants by providing a creative service is ok, but telling your buddies to hit the road and find somebody who would enjoy doing a service for them would be bad??

                          Sorry, creative services demand a certain clear mindset and starting with the notion that I'm your slave and must do this job for you is NOT conducive to doing this serfs best efforts.

                          Why can't you understand that your rights get checked at my businesses front door? I was not in business to bring joy to your life. Only a petty tyrant would think that a businessman works for them, that he is there waiting to serve them. What spoiled children we have raised in this generation.

                          Anybody still not understand why I closed my business and went on strike?
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                          • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
                            If you closed your business and went on strike, then you harmed nobody but yourself. Question: how do you make a living now that you closed your personal business? Did you become an employee at some large corporation?
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                            • Posted by LetsShrug 10 years ago
                              You're changing the subject and attacking star. The topic is 'using force' against business owners and them opting to strike instead, out of principle. Income is NOT the issue. And Star is right...spoiled children have been raised in this country that they think ANYone owes them ANYthing, including business owners. Stick to the point, maph.
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                            • Posted by $ stargeezer 10 years ago
                              No. I have sufficient resources for a comfortable living over a few lifetimes. Did you not understand why a businessman would go on strike? Perhaps a reread of AS is due.
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                              • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago
                                Do you have passive income, or are you just living off savings? Or do you live on a farm where you can just grow your own food and don't have to worry about money?
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  • Posted by $ Maphesdus 10 years ago in reply to this comment.
    Passive income is any income that you receive without having to continually work for it. Examples include rent if you're a landlord and own rental property, royalties from book sales if you're a published author, and so forth. Basically anything where you do the work once, and then you keep getting paid, even after you've stopped working.

    And I'm just wondering why stargeezer did what he did. I'm always interested in alternative ways of earning money, and I simply asked out of curiosity. That's all.
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