Obstruction of Justice or Mayoral Privilege?
IMHO, this is obstruction of justice, plain and simple. This mayor should be prosecuted immediately. No city has the "right" to violate Federal immigration law, as per the Constitution this is a responsibility explicitly delegated to Congress (to form immigration policy) and the Executive (ICE, etc. to enforce).
Previous comments... You are currently on page 2.
It absolutely shouldn't, but the only remedy is Impeachment, which has only happened to the Judiciary one time in history and certainly wouldn't happen in today's hyper-partisan atmosphere.
I actually had an idea about judicial activism: if a Federal Judge has X (I was thinking three) or more rulings in a given year overturned by the Supreme Court, that Judge's stature of being "in good behavior" is automatically revoked and the Judge must re-apply for approval by the Senate (under the same advise and consent rules). In this way, judges who repeatedly ruled based on partisanship would have to justify their positions before a Senate hearing in order to keep their jobs, and they'd have to persuade the Senate they were right to keep their jobs.
I lean toward states rights, too. But states do not have the right to interfere in the enforcement of federal laws. Immigration is handled under the federal umbrella as states do not have the right to make treaties with foreign nations AND because the Constitution puts immigration squarely within the purview of the Executive branch. Interestingly enough, I don't think that the Constitution gives the Judicial branch the authority to over-ride the President in this power, explicitly assigned to him.
I wish the dumbbells running the cities would just secede and take their statist pals from DC with them.
Let the mayor decide for Oakland as long as the Governor of CA agrees.
Let the governors of states decide what the states and cities will do on everything including freezing all federal taxes collected and starving DC bureaucrats.