Personally, I think that if you go to work for the government, there is an inherent bias to vote for more government as a product of self-interest. But I think this article exposes yet another problem with government employees giving money to political candidates: they can't objectively prosecute them!

The problem, however, is that banning government employees from voting seems prima facie a violation of the right to vote. What are your thoughts on how to resolve this quandary?