Legislation by Fiat - the modus operandi of the Obama Administration

Posted by $ blarman 10 years, 7 months ago to Government
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The question I have is a legal one: the Constitution specifically states that tax-related items must originate in the House of Representatives. If so, I fail to see how "rule changes" by the Treasury Department are even legal. Can someone explain this to me?

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  • Posted by Hiraghm 10 years, 7 months ago in reply to this comment.
    sounds to me like a...

    "1st world problem".

    That's a fairly new phrase I've seen tossed around to dismiss seemingly trivial issues. I don't like it. But, Obama legislating by fiat (when he's not even eligible to hold the office, to boot) IS a 1st world problem; the 3rd world, mostly ruled by dictators and oligarchies, don't have that problem. Or rather, as there is no alternative for them, there is no problem.
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  • Posted by edweaver 10 years, 7 months ago in reply to this comment.
    On the present course, we are only a few years away from the 3rd world dictatorship. :)
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  • Posted by $ jbrenner 10 years, 7 months ago
    With tongue planted firmly in cheek, "The law is whatever they say it is." Sounds like a 3rd world dictatorship, doesn't it?
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