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No Country Has A "Right to Exist"

Posted by freedomforall 6 months ago to Politics
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Excerpt:
"While definitions vary, Murray Rothbard best distilled the state in his classic long essay, “Anatomy of the State.” Rothbard wrote: “The state is that organization in society which attempts to maintain a monopoly of the use of force and violence in a given territorial area.”

Whether the associated flag of the state in question has a Star of David, stars and stripes, or a hammer and sickle, the suggestion that it’s immoral to propose that such a monopoly be rearranged or replaced is preposterous on its face. Over the broad sweep of history, the norm is not states existing in perpetuity. Rather, history is the story of never-ending rearrangements of these many monopolies on the use of force and violence.

Did the Soviet Union have a “right to exist”? What about Yugoslavia, Czechoslovakia or the Ottoman Empire? Are we all culpably-silent bystanders to some kind of ongoing injustice as long as those bygone states are not reconstituted?"
SOURCE URL: https://starkrealities.substack.com/p/no-country-has-a-right-to-exist


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  • Posted by Lucky 6 months ago
    Will not open on my PC but from your summary-

    Countries, nations, states, and empires come and go.
    Human constructs can have no more rights than the humans doing the supporting.
    That said, I and others can have preferences for what shall stay and what shall go, such preferences again have no rights eg no majority vote.

    If it were up to me, my preference is to see the end of the Gaza entity, by whatever means it takes, as no signs of the will for peaceful co-existence can be detected.
    That criterion is obviously not popular, the majority favor power, and power expressed with thoughtless violence and cruelty.
    Include me out.
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    • Posted by $ Olduglycarl 6 months ago
      Although "Peaceful co-existence" would be rightfully be a requisite but would ultimately come down to opinion (truth versus lies).
      But in reality, it's up to the majority of people in said country, nation, state or empire.

      That's my take and I'm stickin to it!
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  • Posted by mshupe 6 months ago
    And Rothbard is wrong. This quote does not differentiate retaliatory force from the initiation of force. To fail to do so can only lead to disaster, such as the title of this post.
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    • Posted by $ DriveTrain 6 months ago
      Good and essential observation. I'm wondering why this page is "hiding" your comment. Or why a site dedicated to reason "hides" comments for any reason.
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      • Posted by mshupe 6 months ago
        Thanks for asking. The admin of this site warned me about snarky comments I made about the author of this post and one other participant. It seems my critique of their ethical standards were considered ad hominem, but their presentation of unethical or irrational ideas (by Objectivism's standards) are perfectly acceptable. This post is a good example.
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        • Posted by $ DriveTrain 6 months ago
          This site has admins? 'News to me - I've been trying to contact them for at least a couple of years with zero reply. When did this warning happen?

          And more to the point: Why is a comment having nothing to do with the actual person who posted the lead article, but which rather is a relevant and important point on the content of that post, being soft-censored? This is not the actions of people dedicated to the philosophy of objectivism, methinks.
          .
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          • Posted by mshupe 6 months ago
            My warning came in September I think, from support@galtsgulchonline.com. Scott Desapio is the Admin. The comments for which I was warned were directed to the author of the post or comment in question. The rebuttal had ignored the logic of my contribution to the discussion, dismissing it with subjective arrogance.
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  • Posted by Eyecu2 6 months ago
    “Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed.”

    Currently the Israeli Government is the Government, of that area of the world, "From the river to the sea," and as long as those people consent to that institution existing, then it has a Right to exist. If the people decided to make a change, and in time this is inevitable for every government, then it will change.

    With this said I do not believe that America should be involved in conflicts in other nations, unless said conflict has a likelihood of spreading to/ affecting America. (Yes, I realize that we could then justify being involved in literally every conflict ever) Additionally, do not I support Palestine. My reasoning for not supporting Palestine is that Hamas’s stated goal of waging Holy war against Israel would mean that no Jews would be left. One cannot negotiate with someone who denies your right to live; therefore, I support Israel (Jews) defending themselves with as much force as they deem necessary. The Muslims started it and I would not blink an eye if the Jews ended it.
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  • Posted by $ DriveTrain 6 months ago
    Though it would be flatly impossible to perform the necessary point-by-point refutation of this McGlinchey's post - I will likely have to split this in two just to scratch the surface - the primary flaw in his argument, like that of a big chunk of Libertarian commentators on foreign policy issues, is that he sidesteps philosophy, specifically the entire branch that is ethics. He does this presumably because it gets in the way of his attempt to deconstruct the entire concept of government - any government - as a legitimate entity, and of course to fudge the distinction between good and evil, and even of the need to perform such judgment.

    He leads off in naming a generic truism: that a demand for the obliteration of Israel is not, in itself, evidence of antisemitism.

    Ok, nice observation. But on the basis of that contextless proclamation he begins regurgitating what's essentially the tired old pro-anarchist argument against the legitimacy of any and all government, via some truly jaw-dropping equivocations on terminology. Like trying to parse a distinction between open, unabashed demands for the destruction of Israel - or "obliterat[ion]," as the Charter of Hamas's wording goes - versus a mere "dissolution," a kid-gloves term McGlinchey chooses to substitute for the actual ones. Like blithely - and amorally - renaming the butchery of Hamas (and the countless similar atrocities comitted against Israel and Israelis in the past,) as merely to "propose" that a given state "be rearranged or replaced." His intellectual sleight-of-hand reminds me of that old Far Side cartoon panel where Larsen transforms the Mafia trope of "rearrange your face" into the comedy of "rearrange your furniture." Only McGlinchey's version is not funny.

    Meanwhile, he utterly ignores what is absolutely crucial: The self-stated moral (immoral, in "Hamas'" case) precepts upon which nations - in this case Israel vs its attackers - are based, and more importantly the actions these respective groups of individuals have taken, in both directions, on the basis of those precepts. I refer you to Mr. Steven Schub's piece, which I've posted at GGO previously, for details:
    https://themostendangeredspecies.subs...

    Utterly ignoring the fact that the chronic Hamas / Hezbollah brutalities against Israel and its citizens over a period of decades is a de facto guerrilla war - one in which the animals of those two groups routinely use noncombantants and their neighborhoods and homes as "human shields" - McGlinchey, whether knowingly or not, plops right smack into the propagandist role that Hamas' / Hezbollah's tactics are calculated to create: A boneheaded Western commentator blithely accusing Israel of consequences of: retaliation which is 100% necessitated by the attacker - i.e., not by the defender.

    In McGlinchey's warped view it is Demon Israel, in using purely retaliatory force against combatants intentionally hiding among civilian populations, that is the guilty party. McGlinchey's premises here are not just factually wrong, they're morally despicable.

    My go-to references on this vital issue - the just assignment of moral culpability in war - are two, though there are doubtlessly many worthy others. The first is an article Patrick Stephens published in the immediate aftermath of the attacks that Hamas' blood-brothers (emphasis on: blood,) committed on September 11, 2001, titled "The Justice of War":
    https://www.atlassociety.org/post/the...

    Key points: "...the initial aggressor shoulders the full moral responsibility for the war. That is, he is morally responsible not only for his own actions, but also for the consequences of his victim's defense and retaliation..." and "...To the extent that an aggressor hides the guilty among the innocent, and to the extent that an aggressor exploits civilians in the pursuit of his aggression, innocent and harmless civilians become threats to the retaliating force. They may be innocent, but they have been placed at risk by the aggressor's actions—not by the nation attempting to retaliate."

    Cont'd below -
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    • Posted by $ DriveTrain 6 months ago
      Cont'd -

      McGlinchey's unspoken implication that Israel is intentionally blowing up hospitals and schools defies all rational plausibility, to say nothing of fact. Even ignoring the ethical evil such action would presuppose, for what possible purpose would Israel saddle itself with that kind of worldwide blowback? It makes no sense - except in context of McGlinchey's shabby attempt to construct a moral equivalency between the only civilized society in the Mideast and one of the most barbaric terrorist tribes in the Mideast. I needn't reiterate the moral status of McGlinchey's conscious choice to do so.

      The second is Alan Dershowitz's short, unflinching analysis of this atrocious tactic:
      https://www.capitalismmagazine.com/20...

      He doesn't go into the issue of Western commentators latching onto that atrocity and aiding and abetting its strategy - as does Mr. McGlinchey - but I've covered that here.

      The most unequivocal statement McGlinchey makes in his piece is that he does not consider any country to be legitimate - ethics and its necessary contextual application be damned. That thrice-refuted pro-anarchist critique of government is an entirely tangential issue but as his title tells us, that's McGlinchey's purpose here. His seizing upon an attempted moral equivocation on the Hamas - Israel conflict as his means of regurgitating it, is jaw-dropping amorality on parade. On the secondary issue of anarchism I have neither the time, need or frankly the ability to attempt restating the excellent work that Robert Bidinotto did on the subject back in the mid-'90s. I'll refer interested parties to his recent re-posting of that work:
      https://bidinotto.blogspot.com/p/cont...

      Finally, McGlinchey's attempt to apply our own Declaration of Independence to the cause of the Hamas butchers is beneath contempt. The man's moral compass - and even a sense of public decency - are irretrievably destroyed in this man, apparently.
      .
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      • Posted by $ DriveTrain 6 months ago
        And by way of website remediation, I am going to repost what mshupe posted above - something with which I heartily agree - but which for some odd (and rationally unjustifiable) reason is "hidden." It goes like this:

        "And Rothbard is wrong. This quote does not differentiate retaliatory force from the initiation of force. To fail to do so can only lead to disaster, such as the title of this post."

        Q.: Why is a website dedicated to the philosophy of Ayn Rand, a philosophy explicitly dedicated to reason, allowing a mechanism for "hiding" posts?

        Asking for a friend. 8^[]
        .
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  • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
    We need to be careful about our answers regarding "No country has a 'right to exist'". If one says no, then how long is it before others deny an individual's right to exist? If one says yes, then the reasoning must be stated clearly. As Eyecu2 correctly quoted, "the consent of the governed" is critical.
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  • Posted by j_IR1776wg 6 months ago
    So, in the current war between Israel and Humas, according to the author, neither Israel nor Palestine have a right to exist. Is their only recourse is to continue to kill each other until one of them surrenders?

    Didn't the author ever hear of John Locke, the Declaration of Independence, the U S Constitution, or the Bill of Rights imbedded therein?
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    • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
      Truths that seemed self-evident to America's Founding Fathers ... and to us are not self-evident to everyone.
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      • Posted by j_IR1776wg 6 months ago
        True enough. The Founding Fathers based their creation (USA) on Reason and Logic and Principles (Life, Liberty, etc.) based on the thoughts of men from Aristotle to Locke and many more in between.

        The main problem between Israel and the Islamists is that is that they base governance on Emotions and Faith. Neither has a written constitution. Many Israelis consider the Torah as being a Constitution and all Islamists consider their holy books as rules for governance. "There are a number of holy and important religious books in Islam. In addition to the Qur'an, Muslims are also taught to believe and have faith in three other great books sent by Allah to His Prophets Musa (Moses - the Torah or Old Testament), Daud(David - the Zaboor or the Books of Psalms), and Isa (Jesus - The Injil or The New Testament) before the coming of Muhammad as His last prophet."
        https://www.answers.com/Q/Why_are_the...

        Disagreements between foes based on Religious Faith do not end well unless huge changes take place. In the case of Israel and Humas, these changes do not seem to be forthcoming.
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        • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
          The word "self-evident" is an extremely important point. If one does not acknowledge a creator, then those "rights" are actually human rights and can easily be reduced to privileges, ... as they now have been.

          This is one of the few major weaknesses of Objectivism. I know that this is an Ayn Rand site, so I expect to be downvoted and criticized. Our "rights" are not really rights at all in an Objectivist universe. They can be acknowledged or not acknowledged by the Floyd Ferrises of the world. Usually such Floyd Ferrises, partly because their gods are themselves, do not acknowledge such rights. Consequently, a society of any meaningful size (i.e. larger than Galt's Gulch) is inherently unstable.
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          • Posted by j_IR1776wg 6 months ago
            A most common logical error is to assume that there exists two, and only two, positions on a given matter. It’s called bifurcation. To assume that “rights” can only be given by God or by Man omits the possibility of a third way viz. Nature.

            To quote C. Bradley Thompson in his book America’s Revolutionary Mind, Chapter 3 “…The fundamental laws to which the Americans appealed were not local laws derived from custom or history, now were they derived from holy scripture or declared by saintly prophets. “Our Revolution commenced on more favorable ground, “Thomas Jefferson told the English radical Whig John Cartwright in 1824. Rather than searching into “musty records,” hunting up “royal parchments”, or investigating “the laws and institutions of a semi-barbarous ancestry,” the Americans appealed to the great principles “of nature, and found them engraved on our hearts.” The Revolution, according to Jefferson, presented the Americans with “an album on which we were free to write what we pleased.”1 Unlike the lawgivers of classical antiquity, American constitution makers did not claim, as John Adams noted, to have interviewed “with the gods,” nor were they “in any degree under the inspiration of Heaven.” Instead, these New World Solons and Lycurguses built their new governments on “the simple principles of nature” as determined “by the use of reason and the senses”2"
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            • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
              There are more than two possible positions on any given matter. That being said, nature (note the lack of capitalization) has no mind and is not a single entity. Therefore, it is incapable of reason or of endowing anything. Consequently, people whose governments are built on “the simple principles of nature” as determined “by the use of reason and the senses" do not and cannot have inalienable rights. Those "rights" are alienable, as history has recently shown. Sorry, but your appeal to Bradley Thompson, to Jefferson, and to Adams, do not prove your point. Benjamin Franklin told us that we were being given a republic, if we could keep it. As he quite reasonably feared, eventually we have not kept it.
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              • Posted by j_IR1776wg 6 months ago
                I can only suggest you read John Locke's Two Treatises on Government.
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                • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                  Ayn Rand asks us to check our premises. The foundational premises for the Declaration of Independence are that there are self-evident truths that are endowed by a Creator. A Creator, if one exists, was the basis for not only endowing rights but guaranteeing that they could not be taken away. Nature cannot guarantee anything, nor can man.

                  Objectivism's main premises are that a) there is no Creator, and that b) men should not be allowed to use force against other men. Without a Creator that all acknowledge and fear, there is not an adequate enforcement mechanism to prevent men from using force against other men.

                  Earlier you quoted John Adams. Adams says all of the following:
                  “This would be the best of all possible worlds, if there were no religion in it.” “But I must submit all my Hopes and Fears, to an overruling Providence, in which, unfashionable as the Faith may be, I firmly believe.”
                  "Our Constitution was made only for a moral and religious People. It is wholly inadequate to the government of any other." Adams realized that the Declaration and the Constitution were based on the premise of a religious people, and the potential weakness that presented.
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                  • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                    Ayn Rand realized that Objectivism was not suitable for a general population and that men would use force against each other if not adequately prevented from doing so. Galt's oath is that enforcement mechanism. Those who reject Galt's oath are incompatible with a sustainable Objectivist society. Just as admission of millions of immigrants without ensuring their compatibility with the society of the United States as ensured the demise of the United States, the same would occur in an Objectivist society without strict enforcement of Galt's oath.
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                  • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                    "Without a Creator that all acknowledge and fear, there is not an adequate enforcement mechanism to prevent men from using force against other men."

                    Really? How many wars and persecutions have been fought over religious differences? Which group uses fear to crush their opponents, believers or atheists? Religion is an enforcement mechanism all right, one that is primarily used to control others by force.
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                    • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                      Many wars and persecutions have been fought over religious and non-religious differences.
                      "Which group uses fear to crush their opponents, believers or atheists?" Both. As j_IR1776wg pointed out earlier in the thread, this is an example of bifurcation.
                      Objectivism's biggest flaw is the premise that non-Objectivists should not be allowed to use force to get their own way.
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                      • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                        That's a *flaw?" So the correct premise is that "that non-Objectivists should be allowed to use force to get their own way??
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                        • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                          No, non-Objectivists should be presumed to act in their own self-interest. Unfortunately for us, for way too many non-Objectivists, their self-interest comes at the expense of our self-interest. The flaw is in the assumption that all humans should share the premises of Objectivism. They do not.

                          Among the pillars of Objectivism are objective reality, absolute reason, self-interest, laissez-faire capitalism, the non-aggression principle, and that there can be no contradictions. There is a contradiction here, however. Non-Objectivists consistently violate the non-aggression principle to pursue their self-interest at the expense of our self-interests.
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                          • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                            Where's the contradiction? How does the fact that there are criminals invalidate the Objectivist moral code?
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                            • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                              Objectivism can be used as a personal moral code, but it is grossly inadequate as a code for a society that includes non-Objectivists. "Non-Objectivists consistently violate the non-aggression principle to pursue their self-interest at the expense of our self-interests." This does not necessarily make the non-Objectivist criminal.

                              Let us consider an alternate scenario to what happened in Atlas Shrugged. Would Francisco or Hank been "criminal" had they not given up so easily in their pursuit of Dagny? Such a competition would have been entirely realistic and would not violate Objectivist morality, let alone non-Objectivist morality. One definition of a contradiction is "a combination of statements, ideas, or features of a situation that are opposed to one another". My scenario would have been a case where everyone acts in their self-interest and yet are opposed to one another.
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                              • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                                Then you’re saying that the Objectivist moral code is inadequate for any society. A society of any significant size will include non-Objectivists, criminal or otherwise.

                                Objectivism is entirely compatible with cases in which “everyone acts in their self-interest and yet are opposed to one another.” That statement applies to competition of any kind. Objectivist morality simply prohibits the use of force by anyone who doesn’t like the outcome of the competition. A better example would be John Galt’s efforts to hasten the economy’s collapse vs. Dagny’s attempts to save it from collapsing. Both were acting in their self-interest as they saw it. Neither of them was violating Objectivist morality.
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                                • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                                  What I am saying is that Objectivism would only work for a society that excludes non-Objectivists by using Galt's oath as both an admission requirement and a requirement for continuing to be allowed in such a small society.

                                  Yes, you are right about the better example. My biggest problem personally is that I have a Dagny-like personality and (probably incorrectly) think that I have too much worth saving.

                                  Perhaps my biggest problem with Atlas Shrugged was how little argument there was between what are clearly Type A personalities. Can you imagine Rockefeller, Carnegie, and JP Morgan resolving their differences as easily as the main characters in AS? And yet Rockefeller et al. did manage to figure a way to work together to elect McKinley in 1896, before fighting a little bit more after that and eventually Carnegie and Rockefeller becoming philanthropists.
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            • Posted by $ blarman 6 months ago
              When the Founders referred to "nature" - and Locke is no exception - this is shorthand for the broader phrase "Nature and Nature's God," i.e. the creation and the rules which govern it being driven by intelligence and will. With all due respect, there is no such entity as "nature" which can with 1) act of its own volition or 2) choose to enforce "laws" supposedly attributed to it. Indeed, if we are to refer only to "nature" as the slate of "natural" processes happening in the world around us, we see instead that "nature" is actually quite brutal and no respecter of anything but Might Makes Right. I believe I've brought this point up and still have yet to find someone who can derive equality among human beings without a Creator. How does one find justice without an active Judge?
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              • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                I have yet to find someone who can derive a creator without a more powerful being that brought that creator into existence. Welcome to the infinite regress.
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                • Posted by $ blarman 6 months ago
                  I'd just start by identifying the creator of this world. Then ask :)

                  (This question doesn't address the need for a will, however. It's a red herring.)
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                  • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                    A will requires consciousness. Consciousness requires existence. A creator cannot create unless it is conscious. A creator cannot be conscious unless it first exists. Existence is the fundamental attribute of reality, not consciousness. Existence is a necessary precondition to, and logically prior to creation. A creator cannot create existence, including its own existence.
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                    • Posted by $ blarman 6 months ago
                      "A creator cannot create existence, including its own existence."

                      I think this is where people play mental gymnastics and work themselves into a froth over nothing. Many people use "creation" in this sense to violate the laws of conservation of energy/matter by asserting that such can be suddenly instantiated from nothingness. I don't believe in any such definition of creation. Creation in my book is the organization of the existing into something of a higher state. Changes the entire dynamic of the question.

                      For example, time only matters to this universe: our minds can't wrap around the idea of a universe without it. We can't really posit the nature of eternity - it is beyond us. I think that there is also the notion that the physical - what we can see and touch - is all there is. Once one accepts that time didn't exist until it was created and the universe we see didn't exist until it was spread (Big Bang?), one can realize that we know a lot less about "existence" than we think we do.

                      The other metaphysical problem you bring up is: how does one derive consciousness from unconsciousness? It's the same question but implicates us as well by derivation. If we consider ourselves "conscious," we either have to accept the notion that consciousness can pop out of nowhere (spontaneous generation) or we have to accept the notion that consciousness must be a byproduct of other consciousness. We can work ourselves into a tizzy about these things and drive ourselves mad (Sartre and others) or we can accept the fact that there are some things it will be impossible for us to know in this life without help.

                      Here's how I look at it.
                      1) Higher states of organization require two things: will and impetus/action.
                      2) We see higher states of organization present, therefore will and impetus/action exist.

                      Simple proof:
                      ?A->B
                      !B:!A
                      B
                      B:A
                      A->B
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                      • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                        Premise 1 is false – spontaneous self-organization without consciousness does exist. References for this assertion: two books, Complexity: The Emerging Science at the Edge of Order and Chaos by M. Mitchell Waldrop, and At Home in the Universe: The Search for the Laws of Self-Organization and Complexity by Stuart Kauffman.

                        Since Conclusion 2 follows from Premise 1, it is also false (or at least does not follow from Premise 1).
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                        • Posted by $ blarman 6 months ago
                          As to the claim that there is spontaneous self-organization without consciousness, I'm not familiar with the two works you cite but I have to admit I am skeptical of the claim simply due to entropy. Organization requires the expenditure of energy in order to invest a construct with higher organization. An object left to its own machinations breaks down into simpler units rather than combining into more complex ones. This is especially true as complexity builds (such as would be necessary for a living organism). The notion that somehow there is a workaround for entropy seems to defy the normal mechanics of the material universe.

                          That being said, I'll see if I can squeeze in a quick look at the references. Thanks for including them in our discussion!
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                          • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                            Spontaneous self-organization does indeed happen without consciousness in an attempt to get to a minimum energy configuration. The more common term for it is self-assembly, and I used to be an active researcher in this area. Proteins, clays, and metals all aggregate via a common mechanism, although only a few people (including me) have studied it. Such self-organization lowers the Gibbs free energy in the system.

                            That being said, spontaneous self-organization does not result in consciousness, let alone an act of will. An act of thought consumes energy and will not happen spontaneously.
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                          • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                            As I recall, you are right that organization requires the expenditure of energy in order to invest a construct with higher organization. I think part of their explanation was that a decrease in entropy (or an increase in order) in a localized area must be offset by an increase in entropy elsewhere. Kaufmann also has put forth some updated theories in the recent article How the New Science of Biocosmology Redefines Our Understanding of Life. ( https://www.discovermagazine.com/the-... ) Also this (with link to download PDF): https://arxiv.org/abs/2204.09379
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                            • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                              More precisely, the decrease in entropy from the increase in order is accompanied by a bigger change in enthalpy (deltaH) such that deltaG is less than zero. See my other comment below. You are getting into chemical engineering and materials science, both of which I know far better than philosophy.
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                    • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                      A will does require consciousness. This is the error in basing "rights" on nature. Nature has no consciousness and no will.
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                      • Posted by Lucky 6 months ago
                        Nature has no consciousness and no will.
                        Implication- Will / Intention does not exist without consciousness.
                        I do not understand so do not follow or accept the proposition.

                        A storm does not have will, it blows and causes damage due to causes outside itself. A volcano does not choose to blow.
                        As you state- Nature has no consciousness and no will.
                        At the same time a living human is part of nature and has no choice but to obey nature's laws. The argument could proceed that humans do not have will. Dead end.
                        So, free will in humans must be assumed. So, human consciousness exists, so, many reasons and purposes for that will, so, special creators, let alone dieties, are not shown to necessary tho' are neither dis-proven.

                        Agreed, nature has no rights. Only conscious thinkers have rights, given to them by nature without will / intention.
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                        • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                          I will even to some extent argue with "A living human is part of nature and has no choice but to obey nature's laws." There are many organisms, particularly humans, that modify their own localities to suit their needs, wants, and wishes.
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                        • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                          Nature gives us nothing. It is merely a set of initial and boundary conditions around which we must navigate.

                          If nature gives us nothing, then nature cannot be in a position to guarantee inalienable rights. The argument I have made throughout this thread is that if one rejects the notion of a creator, then all rights are alienable (i.e. They can be taken away by other humans.). Moreover, if a right can be taken away, then it is not a right, but a privilege.
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                          • Posted by Lucky 6 months ago
                            No human endeavor can violate a law of nature. Human cultural success is from understanding and using those laws of nature.
                            Humans can escape hunger and bad weather by using materials that exist and can be fabricated - again using nature's laws.
                            Yes, Nature gives nothing. It has no volition, it offers resistance to taking only to extent of pre-existing natural laws.
                            Yes, nature neither gives nor takes rights. (But what are these rights?). The US Constitution (and Supreme Court) are wrong - there are no natural rights. Benign deities are from human wish thinking. Rights, surely, are claims, I demand your money, do not take mine, my right to life.. These are achievable only by defense, strength, conquest or cooperation with other humans and the understanding of nature. No rights can be or will ever be got from giving way to subservient hallucinations. It has been tried for long enough, throw that stuff out. That is where Objectivism is a guide - life as a heroic venture, rights can be defined and agreed, the logical way is to propose rights as 2-way, the same for all, that is the only way to get agreement, long term, and appealing to (enlightened) self-interest. Agreements only last as long as one individual or group is motivated not to gain power and overcome the others. There is no other way, there is no authority for appeal.

                            JB, elsewhere you say that
                            -without a Creator, rights are alienable. Agreed, thus the need for eternal vigilance.
                            - some humans are evil (put aside definitions). Yes. So, agreements with others, human laws, must allow for that.

                            Yes, even to cooperate with Hamas, it may be necessary, we may need people with such narrow minded dedication.
                            The test. When humans come into contact with creatures of superior intelligence, and they may be our own creation, it may be soon.

                            (If I had more time I would have made all that shorter, as well as sensible!)
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                          • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                            If nature gave us nothing, then we would not exist. Nature gives us much more than mere boundary conditions – it gives us the preconditions that made our lives possible, and the means of sustaining and enriching our lives, and the mental and physical tools to continue improving our lives.

                            Our rights are inherent in our nature, with or without an alleged creator. The ability to exercise these rights can be taken away (including by religious authorities), whether one believes in a creator or not. A creator is not necessary or sufficient to explain rights, any more than he/she/it is necessary or sufficient to explain the universe or anything in it.
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                            • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                              Ayn Rand states that our only fundamental right is a right to life, and the right to property is its only implementation. With this, I can agree. What I do not see is how anything but the right to life could be inherent.

                              If a right can be taken away, one should reasonably ask whether it is a right at all; certainly an "inherent right" cannot be taken away. Otherwise, it would not be inherent, by definition.
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                              • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                                A right, inherent or otherwise, can be violated by another person or group constraining one's ability to exercise that right through force or fraud. Having a right doesn’t make one immune to injury by others. The Objectivist moral code forbids violating others’ rights, it doesn’t make such violations physically impossible.
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                                • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                                  Inherent means "existing in something as a permanent, essential, or characteristic attribute." If someone can "violate" a right to the point where one cannot exercise it any more, such as via murder or significant physical or financial injury, then it cannot any longer be called inherent. A right is only a right if it cannot be permanently taken away from someone. Consequently, in my mind, there are no rights, period.
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                      • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                        "Nature has no consciousness and no will."
                        Nature has no stars or planets either, but both arise from nature acting through its laws (in this case, the laws of physics). Consciousness and will can likewise arise from nature. There is no need for them to be ascribed to some alleged supernatural being.
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          • Posted by j_IR1776wg 6 months ago
            "If one does not acknowledge a creator,.."

            Assuming the existence of a creator does not prove the existence of that creator. The Christian creator is based on Aristotle's "Unmoved Mover" as expressed in his Physics and Metaphysics.

            Ayn Rand wrote that "Existence exists". By that expression, she meant Nature as defined by our Reason, senses, and logic, that existence preceded consciousness.

            Most of the founding fathers were Diests. They believed that the universe was created by an entity similar to Aristotle's Unmoved Mover. That was the first and last act of the UM. Men were then left alone to be responsible for their own actions. Adam's reference to a "moral people" was drawn from Locke's works mentioned elsewhere in this post.
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            • Posted by $ blarman 6 months ago
              "Assuming the existence of a creator does not prove the existence of that creator."

              It doesn't disprove it either. It's up to each individual person to pursue for themselves a description of and existence of a creator. But the metaphysics of morality without enforcement by an intelligent and active will falls apart.

              "Ayn Rand wrote that "Existence exists". By that expression, she meant Nature as defined by our Reason, senses, and logic, that existence preceded consciousness."

              Sure, but see above: it doesn't disprove the necessity of a Creator, neither does it disprove the existence of such a being. Usually the first step - and the hardest - is defining "god." Every religion seems to do it differently. Weeding out the choices one by one is a difficult task...

              "Most of the founding fathers were Diests."

              Some were deists, sure. Most of the Founding Fathers were Christians, they just came from a variety of faiths. (https://www.britannica.com/topic/The-...) Some believed in God yet refused to join themselves to any of the faiths of the time. But they all believed in the Judeo-Christian version of God along with the morality of that belief system. What is remarkable is that rather than setting forth any particular "state" religion, they reserved the right to worship to the individual to select - in stark contrast to Europe at the time where every nation had it's own national religion.
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            • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
              I did not say that I have concrete proof of a creator. What I did say, and still stand unsuccessfully refuted, is that without a Creator whom all acknowledge and respect, that rights are alienable. You are indeed correct about Adams quoting Locke. Adams recognized the potentially flawed premise in America's founding documents, and now that flaw has been both exposed and exploited.
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              • Posted by j_IR1776wg 6 months ago
                No one, using Aristotle's logic or Galileo's scientific method, has ever proven whether this universe was created or, if the matter, energy, and motion we perceive has always been in existence.

                Hence, to assume, as you do, that individual rights "without a Creator whom all acknowledge and respect, that rights are alienable." is to erect a structure upon the shifting sands of Faith.

                Individual Rights can only be derived from Nature employing Reason, Logic, and Science as John Locke did. That is, Human Nature as sentient beings.
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                • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
                  That cannot be concluded from what I wrote. I am not basing individual rights on a creator. What I am saying is that because nature has no mind, it cannot guarantee inalienable rights. Anything is based on human reason can be taken away (i.e. are alienable) because a sufficient number of human beings reject the premises on which such reason is based. To count on the good intentions of other human beings is a mistake. 1) There are human beings who are indeed evil. 2) Even if one does assume that all human beings have good intentions, a) they can be in error, and b) what they consider "good" for them may be bad for you.

                  I am NOT saying to erect individual rights on Faith. What I am say is that America, having done so, built its foundation on shifting sands.
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        • Posted by $ blarman 6 months ago
          "Neither has a written constitution."

          No, neither Israel nor any Islamic nation is built upon a Constitution like that found in the United States. Israel has a parliamentary form of government similar to Britain while the Islamic nations are either military hegemonies (think Iraq under Saddam Hussein), religious caliphates (think Iran), or monarchies (Saudi Arabia).

          "The main problem between Israel and the Islamists is that is that they base governance on Emotions and Faith."

          If what you mean by "emotions and faith" is religion, then yes. And I hate to break it to you but so did America when it was founded on the Judeo-Christian ethic. We based many of our laws on the same principles and even have a monument to the Ten Commandments in the Supreme Court building. The only nations founded on "atheism" ended up slaughtering tens of millions of their own people to repress religion, so I'm not sure an argument against "religion" in general holds any water whatsoever.

          "Disagreements between foes based on Religious Faith do not end well..."

          Is there any other kind? Is not socialism a religion? Wokeism? Atheism is a religion - as acknowledged by the US Supreme Court. Conflict is very real and it ultimately comes down to a conflict of ideas. And until all of humanity agrees on a single set of ideas with which to run themselves, we're going to have conflict. The real question is simply which set of moral ideals is the best for humanity. That's been a debate since the dawn of time. But to think that logic and reason alone are going to mitigate this most fundamental of human decisions is a stretch to say the least.
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          • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
            "The only nations founded on "atheism" . . .

            No nation was ever founded on the basis of atheism. They all had some set of principles, religious or non-religious. Atheism was sometimes a by-product.

            "Atheism is a religion - as acknowledged by the US Supreme Court."

            The Supreme Court is an arbiter of law, not of reality. A religion is a set of beliefs. Atheism, by definition, is a lack of belief. "A-theism". Just as amorality is a lack of morality, not a moral code itself.
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            • Posted by $ blarman 6 months ago
              I would lump in the former Soviet Union under Lenin/Stalin and Communist China under Mao as atheistic dictatorships. They certainly went to great lengths to persecute and/or eradicate traditional religion and set themselves up as the replacement "gods" of those cultures. They embraced "atheism" as their respective national creeds. And they were directly responsible for the deaths of tens of millions of people - estimates are as low as 80 million and as high as double that.

              "Atheism, by definition, is a lack of belief. "A-theism". Just as amorality is a lack of morality, not a moral code itself."

              It is impossible to live without a moral code. One can choose moral relativism - where one is making it up as one goes along - or moral universalism - where one believes in a common set of values which apply to everyone. In the case of moral relativism, one simply places themselves and their hedonism in the place of any other god. Moral relativism is self-worship: a belief in one's self - foolish as though that may be.

              For moral universalists, one has to profess some standard higher than one's self - more "perfect" or "divine" than one's self to aim at. That standard may be embodied in an exemplary being such as in many formal religions (Christianity, Jewry, Islam, etc.) or simply an idea (Buddhism, Objectivism, etc.). But the belief in an standard external to one's self is a belief in something. One can not believe in nothing: nihilism is literally a dead end.

              To examine things in another light, let's look at basic economics. Economics only exists when we perceive self-interest. Self-interest hinges entirely on the perception that an action will lead us to a better state than the one we presently occupy. But the inherent "better" in such an evaluation automatically presupposes some external to which a comparison is being made, that external being either a universal standard or an imagined one, in other words a "belief."

              So to me, I just simply don't buy the notion of complete unbelief in anything. In my mind, it's self-deception. Observation of life and recognition of self-interest tell me that human beings automatically gravitate toward something different than what they have and the mere fact that self-interest exists tells me that it is not a choice to not believe in anything, but a choice of what something to believe in and pursue.
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              • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
                " I just simply don't buy the notion of complete unbelief in anything."

                One can believe in what one can see, hear, feel etc. and still be an atheist. Atheism simply entails the refusal to ascribe the universe that we experience to an alleged "higher being" or supernatural entity.

                "I would lump in the former Soviet Union under Lenin/Stalin and Communist China under Mao as atheistic dictatorships."

                They were dictatorships that happened to be atheistic. They attempted to impose the totality of their beliefs on their subject populations, not simply their atheism. In essence, such dictatorships were no different in kind from dictatorships that imposed their worldview, including their religion, on subject populations that had different religious beliefs.
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                • Posted by $ blarman 6 months ago
                  "Atheism simply entails the refusal to ascribe the universe that we experience to an alleged "higher being" or supernatural entity."

                  So a more accurate term then is anti-theist rather than atheist. I can get behind that.

                  "They were dictatorships that happened to be atheistic."

                  Distinction without a difference. They enforced their belief system which included their "anti-theism." My point is that anti-theists have no moral pedestal from which to perch and lobby theists. Better for all of us to examine the individual belief sets be allowed to worship what we will. Better yet if we choose one which allows for freedom and tolerance of others. :)
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          • Posted by Lucky 6 months ago
            The US Supreme Court is wrong again.
            And again-
            An absence of something is not the same as the something, as absence of something is not a type of that something.
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            • Posted by $ blarman 6 months ago
              True, but one can not prove an absence. One may only prove a presence. And therein lies the inherent conundrum of the atheist: they assert that "god" can not exist but create for themselves an impossible straw man since they can not prove their position. The theist on the other hand has something they can point to and pursue.
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          • Posted by j_IR1776wg 6 months ago
            "If what you mean by "emotions and faith" is religion, then yes. And I hate to break it to you but so did America when it was founded on the Judeo-Christian ethic.

            I disagree. See my reply to jbrenner above concerning a creator.
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        • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
          “The Founding Fathers based their creation (USA) on Reason and Logic and Principles (Life, Liberty, etc.) based on the thoughts of men from Aristotle to Locke and many more in between.”

          I guess that’s why so many of them owned slaves.
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          • Posted by j_IR1776wg 6 months ago
            Slavery is first mentioned in 1754 BC in Hammurabi's Code. https://www.thehistorypress.co.uk/art...

            America did not invent slavery. It did end it in America. Slavery continues worldwide.

            You need to evaluate the founder's political philosophy on its own merits.
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            • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago
              First of all, I don't "need" to do anything. Second, anyone who wants their political philosophy to be taken seriously should be willing to live by it. Many of the founding fathers didn't practice what they preached, and instead profited by the slave labor of others.

              "America did not invent slavery" is not an excuse. Nazis did not invent antisemitism, but in no way does this excuse what they did.
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          • Posted by term2 6 months ago
            They were people with good points and bad points. What they did agree on was to STOP being ruled by England. The rest of the constitution and bill of rights was paperwork.
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  • Posted by CaptainKirk 6 months ago
    Simply put... Groups do not get assigned rights.
    Since a "Country" is a group. This is true.

    But the concept isn't existing... It's free association. Does any group of people have a right to freely associate? They should. Because they do it individually where rights exist.

    Now, does a country have "rights". I can only see abuse from saying yes.
    Can or should a country protect their borders?
    YES. Is it a right? (yes, but of the citizens, IMO, not of the country itself). It's more like an obligation of a country... Otherwise... it's not a country.
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  • Posted by $ blarman 6 months ago
    This is the wrong question. The real question is how governmental change should be initiated and whether or not it is moral for a separate entity to force their morality and government upon another. We've seen the United States try it multiple times since WW II and almost every one failed - not because the model wasn't sound but because the people themselves didn't want it. Most recently we saw this in Iraq and Afghanistan and it led to bloody revolts and those "free" governments being overthrown from within by statists because that is what the people wanted.
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    • Posted by term2 6 months ago
      This is true. And I dont like the current decrepit government and its leader here, but look what happens in a supposedly free country to a former president for objecting to the current administration...
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  • Posted by TheRealBill 5 months, 4 weeks ago in reply to this comment.
    That definition of “inherent”’is only one of many. Most meanings do not carry the connotation in permanent and inviolable.

    Indeed you have to use context or queries to understand the meaning sometimes.

    For example humans inherently have two hands, two eyes and a heart. However, I’d just you’d argue that removing a hand means it didn’t exist or that you aren’t human anymore. We have heart transplants and artificial hearts as well as external cardio circulatory machines. Again, the heart has been removed, thus violating the definition you choose for inherent.

    By your definition choice there is nothing inherently human. Thus I find the application of that definition universally as you indicate is entirely devoid of use as it essentially eradicated the word.
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  • Posted by $ CBJ 6 months ago in reply to this comment.
    But you earlier said that “if one rejects the notion of a creator, then all rights are alienable (i.e. They can be taken away by other humans.).” Now you’re saying that rights do not exist at all. If that’s the case, then the “notion of a creator” has nothing to do with the concept of rights, and this invalidates your earlier argument that rights are endowed by a creator.
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    • Posted by $ jbrenner 6 months ago
      What you are either forgetting, or perhaps never knew, is that the concept of inherent human rights came from the Judeo-Christian tradition. As I remember, it goes something like, "God created them male and female, and declared it good." There is also a line about humans being "fearfully and wonderfully made". This is the historical context on which the concept of humans having inherent rights originally came from. Atheists reasoned that they could come to the same "rights" without a creator. The basis for such "rights" being inalienable was that only a powerful (perhaps not all powerful) creator was in a position to be able to guarantee such rights should such a creator choose to do so. Now that a large portion of society, including Galt's Gulch, has abandoned the concept of such a creator, the basis for inherent, inalienable rights is at best flimsy.

      Finally, I didn't say that rights were endowed by a creator. Those who wrote the Declaration of Independence did, and all throughout this thread, I have argued that the premise of a creator made the inalienability of rights into the Declaration's biggest weakness.
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