The term 'morals' is usually associated with religious views, I think it is correct to say it is not used by Rand probably for that reason. Rand uses 'ethics' and 'values'. There are shades of meaning differences but not significant.
so the answer is- yes.

I guess I was mistaken in thinking that he was asking the question rhetorically.

Again your asking others to decide for you. You have to decide what your definition is and then determine what you think is correct.

Objectivism has its own definition of morality, and it is a self-consistent set of definitions.